HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. Which statement by the client will assist the healthcare provider in determining whether she is in true labor as opposed to false labor?
- A. I passed some thick, pink mucus when I urinated this morning.
- B. My bag of waters just broke.
- C. The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together.
- D. My baby dropped, and I have to urinate more frequently now.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular, strong contractions with the presence of cervical change indicate that the woman is experiencing true labor. Choice A indicates the passing of the mucus plug, which is a sign of early labor but not definitive for true labor. Choice B, the breaking of the bag of waters, is a sign of labor but does not confirm whether it is true or false labor. Choice D, the baby dropping and increased urination frequency, suggests lightening, a sign that labor may be approaching, but it does not confirm true labor.
2. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?
- A. Droplet
- B. Contact
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is transmitted via droplets, primarily through respiratory secretions. Therefore, droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the infection. Droplet precautions involve wearing a surgical mask, goggles, and a gown when within three feet of the client. Contact precautions are used for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact; airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted through airborne particles; protective precautions are not a standard precaution type.
3. How is the diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease confirmed in a 1-month-old infant admitted to the pediatric unit?
- A. Colonoscopy
- B. Rectal biopsy
- C. Multiple saline enemas
- D. Fiberoptic nasoenteric tube
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rectal biopsy is the definitive diagnostic procedure for Hirschsprung disease in infants. It confirms the absence of ganglion cells in the affected bowel segment, which is characteristic of Hirschsprung disease. Colonoscopy (Choice A) is not typically used for confirmation as it may not provide a definitive result. Multiple saline enemas (Choice C) are utilized in the treatment of meconium ileus, a complication of cystic fibrosis, and not in the diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease. Fiberoptic nasoenteric tube (Choice D) is not a diagnostic tool for Hirschsprung disease; it is commonly used for gastrointestinal decompression or feeding purposes but does not confirm the diagnosis.
4. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?
- A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
- B. Tardive dyskinesia
- C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
- D. Drug-induced parkinsonism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.
5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula.
- B. Measure the client's vital signs.
- C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
- D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen via a nasal cannula is the priority action for a client experiencing chest pain due to coronary artery disease. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, reduce myocardial workload, and relieve chest pain by increasing oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While measuring vital signs, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation to address the potential hypoxemia associated with chest pain in a client with a history of coronary artery disease.