Nursing Elites

1. A newborn presents with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position. Which nursing diagnosis should guide the plan of care?

• A. Pain related to periosteal injury
• B. Impaired mobility related to bleeding
• C. Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit
• D. Injury related to intracranial hemorrhage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis to guide the plan of care for a newborn with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position is 'Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit.' This is appropriate because the parents may be worried about the appearance and potential complications of the cephalic hematoma. They may require education and reassurance from the nurse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the emotional needs of the parents and the knowledge deficit they may have regarding the condition.

2. A 4-month-old child taking digoxin (Lanoxin) has a blood pressure of 92/78; resting pulse of 78; respirations 28, and a potassium level of 4.8 mEq/L. The client is irritable and has vomited twice since the morning dose of digoxin. Which finding is most indicative of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Lethargy
• C. Irritability
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) is a key sign of digoxin toxicity. In this scenario, the child's symptoms of irritability, vomiting, along with the resting pulse of 78 despite being on digoxin, suggest an impending bradycardia due to digoxin toxicity. Lethargy can also be a sign, but in this case, the child is irritable rather than lethargic. Vomiting, though a symptom, is not as specific to digoxin toxicity as bradycardia. Irritability, while present, is not the most indicative finding of digoxin toxicity compared to bradycardia.

3. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present on the final half of exhalation. One hour later the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client

• A. Has increased airway obstruction
• B. Has improved airway obstruction
• C. Needs to be suctioned
• D. Exhibits hyperventilation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Has increased airway obstruction.' High-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation indicate a worsening airway obstruction, leading to increased resistance in the airways. Low-pitched wheezes present on the final half of exhalation may suggest some level of obstruction, but the change to high-pitched wheezes throughout exhalation indicates a progression in the obstruction. Choice B is incorrect as the change in wheeze characteristics signifies deterioration rather than improvement. Choice C is incorrect as suctioning is not indicated based on the wheeze assessment findings. Choice D is incorrect as hyperventilation does not typically present with wheezes and is not supported by the information provided.

4. As the new PHN in barangay Masinag, what is necessary to conduct in order to get a picture of the health and social status of the community?

• A. Mass information campaign
• B. Home visit
• C. Community assembly
• D. Community health survey

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To accurately assess the health and social status of a community, conducting a community health survey is essential. This method provides a comprehensive and systematic way to gather data on various health indicators and social determinants within the community. Choices A, B, and C are not as effective in providing a holistic view of the community's health and social status. A mass information campaign may raise awareness but lacks in-depth data collection, a home visit focuses on individual households rather than the entire community, and a community assembly may not reach all community members or provide structured data collection.

5. A health program that aims to reduce the incidence of chronic diseases through lifestyle modifications is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the development of diseases or injuries before they occur by promoting healthy behaviors and lifestyles. In this scenario, the health program targeting lifestyle modifications to reduce chronic diseases aligns with primary prevention efforts. Choice B, secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice C, tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing diseases to prevent complications. Choice D, quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid the consequences of unnecessary or excessive interventions in healthcare.

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