HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023
1. A newborn presents with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position. Which nursing diagnosis should guide the plan of care?
- A. Pain related to periosteal injury
- B. Impaired mobility related to bleeding
- C. Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit
- D. Injury related to intracranial hemorrhage
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis to guide the plan of care for a newborn with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position is 'Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit.' This is appropriate because the parents may be worried about the appearance and potential complications of the cephalic hematoma. They may require education and reassurance from the nurse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the emotional needs of the parents and the knowledge deficit they may have regarding the condition.
2. A child is diagnosed with poison ivy. The mother tells the nurse that she does not know how her child contracted the rash since he had not been playing in wooded areas. As the nurse asks questions about possible contact, which of the following would the nurse recognize as highest risk for exposure?
- A. Playing with toys in a backyard flower garden
- B. Eating small amounts of grass while playing 'farm'
- C. Playing with cars on the pavement near burning leaves
- D. Throwing a ball to a neighborhood child who has poison ivy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Poison ivy can be contracted through smoke from burning plants, which can carry the urushiol oil that causes the rash. Playing near burning leaves would be the highest risk for exposure in this scenario. Choices A, B, and D do not involve direct contact with burning plants or leaves, making them lower-risk activities for exposure to poison ivy.
3. The nurse is teaching a community group about risks of cardiovascular disease. Several clients ask the nurse to determine their risk. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?
- A. A male with a serum cholesterol level of 199 mg/dl.
- B. A female with a serum cholesterol level of 201 mg/dl.
- C. A male with a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 200 mg/dl.
- D. A female with a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 160 mg/dl.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A male with a high LDL level (200 mg/dl) has a significant risk for cardiovascular disease. High levels of LDL cholesterol are associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and heart disease. Choices A, B, and D have serum cholesterol levels that are slightly elevated but are not as specific or directly linked to cardiovascular risk as high LDL levels. Therefore, the client with the high LDL level is at the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease.
4. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present on the final half of exhalation. One hour later the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client
- A. Has increased airway obstruction
- B. Has improved airway obstruction
- C. Needs to be suctioned
- D. Exhibits hyperventilation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Has increased airway obstruction.' High-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation indicate a worsening airway obstruction, leading to increased resistance in the airways. Low-pitched wheezes present on the final half of exhalation may suggest some level of obstruction, but the change to high-pitched wheezes throughout exhalation indicates a progression in the obstruction. Choice B is incorrect as the change in wheeze characteristics signifies deterioration rather than improvement. Choice C is incorrect as suctioning is not indicated based on the wheeze assessment findings. Choice D is incorrect as hyperventilation does not typically present with wheezes and is not supported by the information provided.
5. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?
- A. Auditory gurgling
- B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
- C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
- D. Frequent dry coughing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.
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