the rn is planning care at a team meeting for a 2 month old child in bilateral leg casts for congenital clubfoot which of these suggestions by the pn
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1. The RN is planning care at a team meeting for a 2-month-old child in bilateral leg casts for congenital clubfoot. Which of these suggestions by the PN should be considered the priority nursing goal following cast application?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following cast application for congenital clubfoot in a 2-month-old child, the priority nursing goal should be to maintain tissue perfusion. This is crucial to prevent complications like compartment syndrome and ensure proper healing. While managing pain, relieving muscle spasms, and promoting mobility are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring adequate tissue perfusion in this scenario.

2. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

3. At a nursing staff meeting, there is a discussion of perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. As a follow-up, what should the nurse manager do initially?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facilitating creative thinking on staffing is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse manager in addressing perceived inequities in weekend staff assignments. By encouraging creative thinking, the manager promotes innovative solutions and fosters a sense of ownership and collaboration among staff members. Choices A, B, and C are not the best initial steps in this situation. Allowing staff to change assignments may not address the underlying issues, clarifying reasons for current assignments may not resolve perceived inequities, and helping staff see the complexity of issues may not lead to actionable solutions.

4. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of regular health screenings, this activity falls under which level of prevention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early to prevent complications. Teaching about the importance of regular health screenings helps in early detection and intervention, which aligns with the goals of secondary prevention. Choice A, Primary prevention, involves actions to prevent the onset of a health condition. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing conditions to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid unnecessary interventions, over-medicalization, and the consequences of unnecessary treatment.

5. A 67-year-old client is admitted with substernal chest pain with radiation to the jaw. His admitting diagnosis is Acute Myocardial Infarction (MI). The priority nursing diagnosis for this client during the immediate 24 hours is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired gas exchange. In a client with an acute myocardial infarction, impaired gas exchange is a priority nursing diagnosis due to compromised heart function, which affects oxygenated blood circulation. Close monitoring and interventions are crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A) Constipation related to immobility is not the priority in this acute situation; B) High risk for infection is not the immediate concern related to the client's primary diagnosis; D) Fluid volume deficit, while important, is not the priority compared to addressing impaired gas exchange in acute MI.

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