Nursing Elites

1. Community organizing is an important part of the community nursing function. Given the following elements: choosing an organizational structure, identifying and recruiting members, defining mission, vision, and goals, clarifying roles and responsibilities; at which stage do these elements belong?

• A. Program maintenance-consolidation
• B. Dissemination-Reassessment
• C. Community Analysis/diagnosis
• D. Design and initiation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Design and initiation. These elements such as choosing an organizational structure, identifying and recruiting members, defining mission, vision, and goals, and clarifying roles and responsibilities belong to the design and initiation stage of community organizing. This stage focuses on setting up the foundation and structure of the community organization. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Program maintenance-consolidation refers to maintaining and strengthening existing programs, not establishing new ones; B) Dissemination-Reassessment involves spreading information and evaluating programs already in place; C) Community Analysis/diagnosis is about assessing community needs and identifying issues, not about setting up the initial structure.

2. What is the primary function of a public health nurse?

• A. Provide bedside care
• B. Administer medications
• C. Promote and protect the health of populations
• D. Perform surgical procedures

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary function of a public health nurse is to promote and protect the health of populations. Public health nurses focus on preventing diseases, promoting healthy behaviors, and addressing health disparities within communities. Providing bedside care (choice A) is typically done by nurses in clinical settings, not public health nurses. Administering medications (choice B) is part of nursing practice but not the primary role of a public health nurse. Performing surgical procedures (choice D) is usually the responsibility of surgical nurses or healthcare providers specializing in surgery, not public health nurses.

3. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.

4. The nurse is caring for an acutely ill 10-year-old client. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Rapid bounding pulse
• B. Temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius
• C. Profuse diaphoresis
• D. Slow, irregular respirations

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, slow, irregular respirations. In an acutely ill child, this assessment can indicate impending respiratory failure or neurological compromise, necessitating immediate intervention. Rapid bounding pulse (choice A) may indicate tachycardia but is not as immediately concerning as compromised respirations. A temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius (choice B) is elevated but may not be the most urgent concern unless accompanied by other symptoms. Profuse diaphoresis (choice C) can indicate increased sympathetic activity but is not as critical as respiratory compromise.

5. The nurse is planning care for a client with increased intracranial pressure. The best position for this client is

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Prone
• C. Semi-Fowler's
• D. Side-lying with head flat

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Semi-Fowler's. This position helps to reduce intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage from the head while maintaining adequate oxygenation. Option A, Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves placing the patient with the head lower than the body, which can increase intracranial pressure. Option B, Prone position, is also incorrect as it involves lying on the stomach, which can further elevate intracranial pressure. Option D, Side-lying with head flat, does not provide the same benefits as the Semi-Fowler's position in terms of promoting venous drainage and maintaining oxygenation in a client with increased intracranial pressure.

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