a 67 year old client is admitted with substernal chest pain with radiation to the jaw his admitting diagnosis is acute myocardial infraction mi the pr
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HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Study Guide

1. A 67-year-old client is admitted with substernal chest pain with radiation to the jaw. His admitting diagnosis is Acute Myocardial Infarction (MI). The priority nursing diagnosis for this client during the immediate 24 hours is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired gas exchange. In a client with an acute myocardial infarction, impaired gas exchange is a priority nursing diagnosis due to compromised heart function, which affects oxygenated blood circulation. Close monitoring and interventions are crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A) Constipation related to immobility is not the priority in this acute situation; B) High risk for infection is not the immediate concern related to the client's primary diagnosis; D) Fluid volume deficit, while important, is not the priority compared to addressing impaired gas exchange in acute MI.

2. During which phase of the community organizing process are the leaders or groups given training to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the organizing-building phase. This phase involves providing training to leaders and groups to develop their knowledge, skills, and attitudes in managing their own programs. Choice A, the sustenance and strengthening phase, focuses more on maintaining and enhancing existing programs rather than training. Choice B, the pre-entry phase, occurs before actual organizing and training take place. Choice D, the entry phase, is about initiating the community organizing process, not specifically about training leaders and groups.

3. A 16-year-old female client returns to the clinic because she is pregnant for the third time by a new boyfriend. Which vaccine should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for pregnant women as it helps prevent transmission of the virus to the baby during childbirth. Measles-mumps-rubella vaccine (choice A) is not directly related to the current situation of the client being pregnant. Human papillomavirus vaccine (choice C) is recommended for adolescents but is not specifically indicated in this case. Pneumococcal vaccine (choice D) is not a priority in this scenario compared to Hepatitis B, which is crucial for preventing vertical transmission.

4. Which of the following is an example of a modifiable risk factor for chronic diseases?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Physical inactivity is a modifiable risk factor for chronic diseases because individuals have control over their level of physical activity. By increasing physical activity, the risk of chronic diseases can be reduced. Choices A, B, and C are not modifiable risk factors: Age is a non-modifiable factor, gender is a biological characteristic, and genetic predisposition is inherent and cannot be altered.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

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