a 67 year old client is admitted with substernal chest pain with radiation to the jaw his admitting diagnosis is acute myocardial infraction mi the pr
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Nursing Elites

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Community Health HESI Study Guide

1. A 67-year-old client is admitted with substernal chest pain with radiation to the jaw. His admitting diagnosis is Acute Myocardial Infarction (MI). The priority nursing diagnosis for this client during the immediate 24 hours is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired gas exchange. In a client with an acute myocardial infarction, impaired gas exchange is a priority nursing diagnosis due to compromised heart function, which affects oxygenated blood circulation. Close monitoring and interventions are crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A) Constipation related to immobility is not the priority in this acute situation; B) High risk for infection is not the immediate concern related to the client's primary diagnosis; D) Fluid volume deficit, while important, is not the priority compared to addressing impaired gas exchange in acute MI.

2. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

3. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of hand hygiene, the nurse is engaging in:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it happens. Teaching about hand hygiene to the community helps in preventing infections from occurring in the first place. Choice B, Secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to halt or slow the progress of a condition. This would involve screening or early intervention after exposure. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing the disease to prevent complications, recurrence, or deterioration. This would include rehabilitation and monitoring to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to avoid unnecessary interventions or over-medicalization. This usually involves questioning the necessity of certain medical procedures or treatments to prevent harm to patients.

4. When caring for a child with Reye's Syndrome, which action should the nurse give the highest priority?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the level of consciousness is crucial when caring for a child with Reye's Syndrome. Changes in neurological status can indicate deterioration of the condition, necessitating immediate medical attention. Monitoring intake and output is important but not the highest priority compared to assessing the child's level of consciousness. Providing good skin care and assisting with range of motion are also important aspects of care but take a lower priority than assessing the child's neurological status in this critical condition.

5. The healthcare provider is screening children at a local community health clinic for infectious diseases. Which child is at the highest risk for hepatitis B virus?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Newborns are at the highest risk for hepatitis B virus due to potential transmission from the mother. The hepatitis B virus can be transmitted from an infected mother to her baby during childbirth. Children born to mothers infected with hepatitis B are at the highest risk of acquiring the infection. Choices B, C, and D are at lower risk compared to a newborn as they are less likely to have been exposed to the virus during childbirth.

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