Nursing Elites

1. A 67-year-old client is admitted with substernal chest pain with radiation to the jaw. His admitting diagnosis is Acute Myocardial Infarction (MI). The priority nursing diagnosis for this client during the immediate 24 hours is

• A. Constipation related to immobility
• B. High risk for infection
• C. Impaired gas exchange
• D. Fluid volume deficit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired gas exchange. In a client with an acute myocardial infarction, impaired gas exchange is a priority nursing diagnosis due to compromised heart function, which affects oxygenated blood circulation. Close monitoring and interventions are crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A) Constipation related to immobility is not the priority in this acute situation; B) High risk for infection is not the immediate concern related to the client's primary diagnosis; D) Fluid volume deficit, while important, is not the priority compared to addressing impaired gas exchange in acute MI.

2. The home health nursing director is conducting an educational program for registered nurses and practical nurses about Medicare reimbursement. To obtain payment for Medicare services, what must be included in the client's record?

• A. A prescription from the healthcare provider for each visit made.
• B. Documentation of a skilled care service provided during the visit.
• C. A copy of the client's health history and social security card.
• D. A record of the preventative healthcare services provided during the visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Documentation of skilled care services is required for Medicare reimbursement. Medicare reimbursement is based on the provision of skilled care services, not on prescriptions or preventative healthcare services. Including a copy of the client's health history and social security card is not a requirement for Medicare reimbursement.

3. A public health nurse is working with a community to develop a disaster response plan. Which of the following is the priority action?

• A. Identifying available resources and services
• B. Conducting disaster drills
• C. Educating the community about disaster preparedness
• D. Developing a communication plan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Identifying available resources and services is the priority action when developing a disaster response plan. This step is crucial as it helps the community understand what resources and services are already in place and what additional support may be needed during a disaster. Conducting disaster drills, educating the community about disaster preparedness, and developing a communication plan are important steps in disaster preparedness but come after identifying available resources and services. Without knowing the available resources, it would be challenging to effectively plan and respond to a disaster.

4. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Tertiary prevention.
• C. Secondary prevention.
• D. Primary nursing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

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