Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would be consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Low serum albumin
• B. High serum cholesterol
• C. Abnormally low white blood cell count
• D. Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.

2. The new graduate nurse interviews for a position in a nursing department of a large health care agency, described by the interviewer as having shared governance. Which of these statements best illustrates the shared governance model?

• A. An appointed board oversees any administrative decisions
• B. Nursing departments share responsibility for client outcomes
• C. Staff groups are appointed to discuss nursing practice and client education issues
• D. Non-nurse managers supervise nursing staff in groups of units

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because shared governance involves nurses and other staff sharing responsibility for decisions related to patient care and outcomes, promoting collaborative practice and shared accountability. Choice A is incorrect as shared governance includes active participation of frontline staff, not just an appointed board. Choice C is incorrect because shared governance goes beyond just discussing issues to actively sharing responsibility for decision-making. Choice D is incorrect as shared governance encourages nurses to have a significant role in decision-making rather than being supervised by non-nurse managers.

3. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of regular health screenings, this activity falls under which level of prevention?

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early to prevent complications. Teaching about the importance of regular health screenings helps in early detection and intervention, which aligns with the goals of secondary prevention. Choice A, Primary prevention, involves actions to prevent the onset of a health condition. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing conditions to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid unnecessary interventions, over-medicalization, and the consequences of unnecessary treatment.

4. A nurse manager is using the technique of brainstorming to help solve a problem. One nurse criticizes another nurse’s contribution and begins to find objections to the suggestion. The nurse manager's best response is to

• A. Let’s move on to a new action that deals with the problem.
• B. I think you need to reserve judgment until after all suggestions are offered.
• C. Very well thought out. Your analytic skills and interest are incredible.
• D. Let’s move to the ‘what if…’ as related to these objections for an exploration of spin-off ideas.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the group to explore 'what if' scenarios based on the objections helps to maintain a positive and creative brainstorming atmosphere, while also validating the concerns raised by the nurse. Choice A is dismissive and does not address the issue at hand. Choice B suggests postponing judgment, which may not resolve the tension caused by the criticism. Choice C is complimentary but does not address the critical feedback provided by the nurse, missing an opportunity to turn objections into opportunities for further exploration.

5. A client presents at a community-based clinic with complaints of shortness of breath, headache, dizziness, and nausea. During the assessment, the nurse learns that the client is a migrant worker who often uses a gasoline-powered pressure washer to clean equipment and farm buildings. Which type of poisoning is the most likely etiology of this client's symptoms?

• A. asbestos
• B. silica dust
• C. histoplasmosis
• D. carbon monoxide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's symptoms of shortness of breath, headache, dizziness, and nausea are indicative of carbon monoxide poisoning, which can result from exposure to gasoline-powered equipment like pressure washers. Asbestos (Choice A) exposure would typically present with respiratory issues and cancer but not the rapid onset of symptoms described. Silica dust (Choice B) exposure is associated with respiratory conditions like silicosis, not the multisystem symptoms in the scenario. Histoplasmosis (Choice C) is a fungal infection that primarily affects the lungs and is not related to the client's exposure to a gasoline-powered pressure washer.

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