Nursing Elites

1. A female client presents to the emergency center with confusion, emotional numbness, and expresses to the nurse a feeling of disbelief that she was raped. The nurse determines the client is in the acute phase of rape-trauma syndrome. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Secure samples of vaginal hair combings.
• B. Offer prophylactic antibiotic medication.
• C. Explain the rape protocol to the client.
• D. Implement crisis intervention counseling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of rape-trauma syndrome, it is crucial to provide clear information about what to expect during the examination and treatment. This can help the client regain a sense of control and reduce anxiety. Explaining the rape protocol to the client should be the first action to implement. Option A is not the priority at this stage as the immediate focus is on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option B is not the first action unless medically indicated. Option D, crisis intervention counseling, is important but should come after providing essential information and support to the client.

2. A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, 'My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!' The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial
• B. Projection
• C. Rationalization
• D. Splitting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own feelings of anger and selfishness onto his roommate. Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, and motives to another person. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Denial is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality or experience. Rationalization is providing logical-sounding reasons to justify unacceptable behaviors or feelings. Splitting is seeing individuals as all good or all bad, with no middle ground.

3. During an annual physical by the occupational nurse working in a corporate clinic, a male employee tells the nurse that his high-stress job is causing trouble in his personal life. He further explains that he often gets so angry while driving to and from work that he has considered 'getting even' with other drivers. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Anger is contagious and could result in major confrontation.
• B. Try not to let your anger cause you to act impulsively.
• C. Expressing your anger to a stranger could result in an unsafe situation.
• D. It sounds as if you feel angry for no reason

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct responses are C and D. The nurse should acknowledge the employee's feelings of anger and suggest that expressing anger to strangers, like other drivers, could lead to unsafe situations. This response aims to prevent potential confrontations or harm. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't address the specific situation of expressing anger while driving. Choice B is also incorrect as it is vague and doesn't provide practical advice to manage the anger effectively.

4. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Liver function tests.
• C. Blood glucose levels.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important laboratory test for an LPN/LVN to monitor for a client with schizophrenia being treated with clozapine is the white blood cell count. Clozapine treatment is associated with a risk of agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count regularly helps to detect this adverse effect early. Liver function tests (Choice B) are important to monitor with some antipsychotic medications but are not the most crucial for clozapine. Blood glucose levels (Choice C) are more relevant for monitoring in clients on medications like atypical antipsychotics that can cause metabolic side effects. Platelet count (Choice D) is not typically affected by clozapine therapy and is not the most important test to monitor in this case.

5. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
• B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
• C. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
• D. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. Dystonia can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone, leading to involuntary muscle contractions and abnormal postures. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat dystonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because thioridazine is not the appropriate medication in this case, a hot pack would not address the underlying issue of dystonia, and occupational therapy is not the primary intervention for addressing acute dystonic reactions.

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