Nursing Elites

1. A female client with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is admitted to the hospital for a cardiac catheterization. The afternoon before the procedure, the client begins to keep detailed notes of the nursing care she is receiving and reports her findings to the RN at bedtime. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Explain to the client that her behavior invades the rights of the nursing staff.
• B. Ask the client to explain why she is keeping a detailed record of her nursing care.
• C. Teach the client strategies to control her obsessive-compulsive behavior.
• D. Encourage the client to express her feelings regarding the upcoming procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking the client to explain why she is keeping a detailed record of her nursing care is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation. Understanding the client’s motivations for keeping detailed records can provide insight into her obsessive-compulsive behaviors and help manage them effectively. This approach allows for a non-confrontational exploration of the behavior. Choice A is incorrect because it may be perceived as confrontational and does not address the underlying reasons for the behavior. Choice C is incorrect because teaching strategies to control behavior should come after understanding the client's motives. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address the behavior of keeping detailed records, which is the immediate concern that needs to be addressed.

2. A client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt is being discharged from the hospital. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further follow-up?

• A. “I will take my medication as prescribed.”
• B. “I have a plan to attend weekly therapy sessions.”
• C. “I feel that I am completely recovered now.”
• D. “I will avoid people who make me feel worse.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client with depression and a history of a recent suicide attempt states, “I feel that I am completely recovered now,” it indicates a need for further follow-up. This statement suggests a potential lack of insight into the ongoing nature of depression and may lead to discontinuation of necessary treatment and support. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate positive and proactive attitudes towards managing depression and suicidal ideation, indicating a willingness to engage in treatment, therapy, and self-care practices.

3. An adolescent with anorexia nervosa is undergoing nutritional therapy. Which finding best indicates that the client is making progress in treatment?

• A. Client gains 2 pounds in a week.
• B. Client describes a positive body image.
• C. Client engages in recreational activities.
• D. Client begins to talk about future goals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight gain is a crucial indicator of progress in the treatment of anorexia nervosa. In individuals with anorexia, restoring and maintaining a healthy weight is a primary goal to address the underlying nutritional deficiencies and health complications associated with the disorder. While choices B, C, and D are positive developments in the client's overall well-being and recovery journey, they are not as directly linked to the core issue of nutritional rehabilitation in anorexia nervosa. Describing a positive body image, engaging in recreational activities, and talking about future goals are important aspects of psychological and emotional recovery, but weight gain is a more immediate and objective measure of progress in treating anorexia nervosa.

4. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

5. Which therapeutic communication statement might a psychiatric-mental health registered nurse use when a patient's nursing diagnosis is altered thought processes?

• A. I know you say you hear voices, but I cannot hear them.
• B. Stop listening to the voices, they are NOT real.
• C. You say you hear voices, what are they telling you?
• D. Please tell the voices to leave you alone for now.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because it acknowledges the patient's experience of hearing voices, showing empathy and exploring the content of the hallucinations. This type of therapeutic communication encourages the patient to express their thoughts and feelings without judgment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they either deny the patient's experience, dismiss the hallucinations as not real, or suggest eliminating them, which can be perceived as invalidating the patient's feelings and experiences.

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