a female client with obsessive compulsive personality disorder is admitted to the hospital for a cardiac catheterization the afternoon before the proc
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. A female client with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is admitted to the hospital for a cardiac catheterization. The afternoon before the procedure, the client begins to keep detailed notes of the nursing care she is receiving and reports her findings to the RN at bedtime. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking the client to explain why she is keeping a detailed record of her nursing care is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation. Understanding the client’s motivations for keeping detailed records can provide insight into her obsessive-compulsive behaviors and help manage them effectively. This approach allows for a non-confrontational exploration of the behavior. Choice A is incorrect because it may be perceived as confrontational and does not address the underlying reasons for the behavior. Choice C is incorrect because teaching strategies to control behavior should come after understanding the client's motives. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address the behavior of keeping detailed records, which is the immediate concern that needs to be addressed.

2. A client with an eating disorder tells the RN, 'I’ve been eating only 400 calories per day and have been taking diuretics to lose weight.' What is the RN’s best response?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D. By addressing the potential harm of diuretics and the low-calorie diet, the nurse effectively addresses both aspects of the client's disordered eating behavior. Choice A is too direct and does not provide information on the specific issue of diuretics. Choice B focuses solely on monitoring calorie intake without addressing the use of diuretics. Choice C inquires about physical effects but does not address the overall risks associated with diuretics and low-calorie intake.

3. When developing a plan of care for a male client admitted with delirium tremens, who is dehydrated, experiencing auditory hallucinations, has a bruised, swollen tongue, and is confused, what action should the RN include to ensure the client is physiologically stable?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring vital signs is the priority action to ensure the physiological stability of a client with delirium tremens. In this scenario, the client's dehydration, confusion, and other symptoms necessitate close monitoring of vital signs to assess their condition accurately. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice A) is important for hydration but does not directly assess physiological stability. Keeping the room dark (Choice C) may help with hallucinations but is not the primary intervention for physiological stability. Applying ice to the tongue (Choice D) addresses a symptom but is less critical compared to monitoring vital signs in this situation.

4. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a literally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. The client's symptoms of body contortion and feeling like a monster are indicative of acute dystonia, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. Benztropine can help alleviate these acute dystonic reactions. Choice A is incorrect because changing the antipsychotic medication at this point is not indicated. Choice B is not appropriate as the client's symptoms are likely due to acute dystonia rather than muscle spasms. Choice C is also not the best course of action as the client needs immediate intervention for the acute dystonic reaction.

5. A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took it previously. Which statement is best for the RN to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is essential for the nurse to address the client's concerns about the side effects of the medication. By acknowledging the side effects and reassuring the client that they are manageable, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their treatment. This approach fosters trust between the client and the healthcare provider, promotes open communication, and supports treatment adherence. Choices B and D are not appropriate as they do not address the client's specific concern about the side effects or offer constructive support. Choice C is premature as switching medications should be considered after exploring ways to manage the side effects of the current medication.

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