Nursing Elites

1. The client is planning discharge for a male client with schizophrenia. The client insists that he is returning to his apartment, although the healthcare provider informed him that he will be moving to a boarding home. What is the most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning?

• A. Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.
• B. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support.
• C. Social isolation related to difficult interactions.
• D. Self-care deficit related to cognitive impairment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best nursing diagnosis is (A) because the client is unable to acknowledge the move to a boarding home. While (B, C, and D) are potential nursing diagnoses, denial is the most critical as it is a defense mechanism preventing the client from addressing his feelings regarding the change in living arrangements.

2. A nurse determines that the wife of an alcoholic client is benefitting from attending an Al-Anon group when the nurse hears the wife say:

• A. I no longer feel that I deserve the meetings my husband inflicts on me.
• B. My attendance at the meetings has helped me to see that I provoke my husband's violence.
• C. I enjoy attending the meetings because they get me out of the house and away from my husband.
• D. I can tolerate my husband's destructive behaviors now that I know they are common with alcoholics.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer as the statement indicates the wife understands that her husband's behavior is not her fault and is benefitting from the group support. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests self-blame rather than recognizing the husband's responsibility. Choice C is incorrect as the benefit is related to emotional support and understanding, not just getting away from the husband. Choice D is incorrect as tolerating destructive behaviors is not a healthy outcome of attending support groups.

3. A child is brought to the emergency room with a broken arm. Because of other injuries, the nurse suspects the child may be a victim of abuse. When the nurse tries to give the child an injection, the child's mother becomes very loud and shouts, 'I won't leave my son! Don't you touch him! You'll hurt my child!' What is the best interpretation of the mother's statements? The mother is

• A. regressing to an earlier behavior pattern.
• B. sublimating her anger.
• C. projecting her feelings onto the nurse.
• D. suppressing her fear.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is (C) projecting her feelings onto the nurse. The mother's behavior suggests that she is attributing her own actions or feelings to the nurse, which is a form of projection. Option (A) regressing to an earlier behavior pattern is not the best fit in this context. Option (B) sublimating her anger is not applicable based on the given scenario. Option (D) suppressing her fear cannot be inferred from the provided information.

4. An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?

• A. You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you.
• B. It must be difficult for you to control your anxious feelings.
• C. Go to occupational therapy and start a project.
• D. You are not in a war area now; this is the United States.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide is option A: 'You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you.' This response is effective as it grounds the client in the present reality while also acknowledging the client's feelings. It shows acceptance of the client's experience without directly challenging the delusional belief, which can help build rapport and trust. Option B focuses on anxiety rather than validating the client's experience or addressing the delusion. Option C suggests an unrelated activity that may not be helpful in this situation. Option D attempts to correct the client's belief, which is not likely to be effective in managing delusional thoughts.

5. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?

• A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
• B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
• C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
• D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.

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