the wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse what exactly is schizophrenia is my husband all right which response is
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI 2023

1. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.

2. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

3. A client with a history of bipolar disorder presents to the emergency department with symptoms of mania. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering prescribed medication to manage symptoms is the priority intervention for a client with symptoms of mania. During a manic episode, the client may be at risk of harm to self or others due to impulsivity and poor judgment. Medication helps stabilize the client, reduce manic symptoms, and prevent further escalation. Providing a calm environment (choice B) is important but not the priority when the client's safety is at risk. Encouraging expression of feelings (choice C) and reinforcing medication adherence (choice D) are valuable aspects of care but addressing the acute symptoms of mania takes precedence to ensure the client's immediate safety and well-being.

4. A nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and less communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to participate in group activities. Group activities can help improve social interaction and potentially reduce feelings of isolation in depressed clients. Choice A, engaging the client in non-threatening conversations, may be helpful but may not address the underlying need for social interaction that group activities can provide. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not directly address the client's need for social engagement. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice C) is important for support but may not provide the same level of social interaction as group activities.

5. A female client refuses to take an oral hypoglycemic agent because she believes that the drug is being administered as part of an elaborate plan by the Mafia to harm her. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Reassessing the client's mental status is the most important intervention as it is crucial to address the client's delusional thinking. By assessing the client's thought processes and content, the nurse can gain insight into the client's beliefs and tailor interventions accordingly. Reassuring the client that no harm will come to her, asking the healthcare provider to give the medication, or simply explaining the importance of taking the medication may not effectively address the underlying issue of delusional beliefs.

Similar Questions

A female client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for two weeks suddenly becomes more energetic and talkative. What action should the RN take first?
A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia and exhibits apathy, lack of energy, and lack of interest in daily activities. The nurse should recognize that these symptoms are most likely due to which of the following?
A male client is admitted to a mental health unit on Friday afternoon and is very upset on Sunday because he has not had the opportunity to talk with the healthcare provider. Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client?
A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The LPN/LVN notes that the client has not bathed or dressed in clean clothes for several days. What is the most appropriate intervention for the nurse to implement?
When caring for a client who has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be especially cautious about which of the following client behaviors?

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