HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI 2023
1. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?
- A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
- B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
- C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
- D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.
2. A nurse is assessing a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who reports difficulty concentrating and feeling restless. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine.
- B. Suggest the client take up a new hobby.
- C. Teach the client deep breathing exercises.
- D. Refer the client to group therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Teaching deep breathing exercises is the most appropriate intervention for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) experiencing difficulty concentrating and restlessness. Deep breathing exercises are a proven technique to help manage anxiety symptoms, promote relaxation, and improve concentration. Encouraging the client to avoid caffeine (Choice A) may be beneficial, but it is not the most direct intervention for the reported symptoms. Suggesting the client take up a new hobby (Choice B) may be helpful for overall well-being but does not directly address the immediate symptoms. Referring the client to group therapy (Choice D) may be beneficial in the long term, but teaching deep breathing exercises is more immediate and can be easily implemented by the client in various settings.
3. A female client presents to the emergency center with confusion, emotional numbness, and expresses to the nurse a feeling of disbelief that she was raped. The nurse determines the client is in the acute phase of rape-trauma syndrome. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Secure samples of vaginal hair combings.
- B. Offer prophylactic antibiotic medication.
- C. Explain the rape protocol to the client.
- D. Implement crisis intervention counseling.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of rape-trauma syndrome, it is crucial to provide clear information about what to expect during the examination and treatment. This can help the client regain a sense of control and reduce anxiety. Explaining the rape protocol to the client should be the first action to implement. Option A is not the priority at this stage as the immediate focus is on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option B is not the first action unless medically indicated. Option D, crisis intervention counseling, is important but should come after providing essential information and support to the client.
4. A nurse working in a psychiatric unit is assessing a client who appears to be responding to internal stimuli. The client is laughing and talking to himself. What is the nurse's best initial response?
- A. Approach the client and ask if he is hearing voices.
- B. Ignore the behavior as it is common in psychiatric settings.
- C. Encourage the client to express his thoughts verbally.
- D. Observe the client's behavior from a distance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Approaching the client and asking if he is hearing voices is the best initial response by the nurse. This action can help assess the situation and determine if the client is experiencing hallucinations that may require immediate intervention. Choice B is incorrect because ignoring the behavior could lead to missing important signs of distress or potential risks. Choice C may not address the immediate concern of assessing for hallucinations. Choice D is also not ideal as observing from a distance may not provide the necessary information for immediate assessment and intervention.
5. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
- C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
- D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.
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