Nursing Elites

1. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?

• A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
• B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
• C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
• D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is being discharged with a prescription for lithium. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in sodium.
• B. Drink plenty of fluids, especially during hot weather.
• C. Take your medication with food.
• D. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to drink plenty of fluids, especially during hot weather. Maintaining adequate hydration is crucial for clients taking lithium as dehydration can lead to lithium toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because while it is important to monitor sodium intake, staying hydrated is more critical. Choice C is incorrect as lithium is usually recommended to be taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice D is also important but not the most crucial instruction compared to ensuring proper hydration.

3. A male client is admitted to a mental health unit on Friday afternoon and is very upset on Sunday because he has not had the opportunity to talk with the healthcare provider. Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. Let me call and leave a message for your healthcare provider.
• B. The healthcare provider should be here on Monday morning.
• C. How can I help answer your questions?
• D. What concerns do you have at this time?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is best for the nurse to call the healthcare provider (A) because clients have the right to information about their treatment. Suggesting that the healthcare provider will be available the following day (B) does not provide immediate reassurance to the client. While offering to help answer questions (C) and inquiring about concerns (D) are supportive approaches, contacting the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action to address the client's immediate need for communication with their healthcare provider.

4. A homeless person who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is admitted to the mental health unit. Which laboratory finding obtained on admission is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level
• B. Elevated liver function profile
• C. Increased white blood cell count
• D. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level. Hyperthyroidism causes an increased level of serum thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), which inhibit the release of TSH. In this case, a decreased TSH level can indicate hyperthyroidism, which can present with manic behavior. Elevated liver function profile (B) is not directly related to the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Increased white blood cell count (C) typically indicates an infection or inflammation, not directly related to the manic phase. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels (D) may suggest anemia but are not as crucial in the context of a manic phase of bipolar disorder.

5. A moderately depressed client who was hospitalized 2 days ago suddenly begins smiling and reporting that the crisis is over. The client says to a nurse, 'I'm finally cured.' The LPN/LVN interprets this behavior as a cue to modify the treatment plan by:

• A. Suggesting a reduction of medication
• B. Allowing increased 'in-room' activities
• C. Increasing the level of suicide precautions
• D. Allowing the client off-unit privileges as needed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sudden improvement in mood and declaring being cured can be warning signs of a decision to attempt suicide. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to increase the level of suicide precautions to ensure the safety of the client. This can involve closer monitoring and restriction of items that could be harmful. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the potential risk of suicide that may be present with the sudden change in behavior.

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