Nursing Elites

1. On admission assessment, the nurse is obtaining subjective data about a client's sexual and reproductive status. The client states, 'I don't want to discuss this; it's private and personal.' Which response by the LVN/LPN is the most therapeutic?

• A. I'd hate being asked these sorts of questions too, but it's a necessary part of providing you with the best care.
• B. This is difficult for you to speak about, but I need this information from you in order to perform a complete assessment.
• C. I am a professional registered nurse, and, as such, I'll have you know that all your information is certainly kept confidential.
• D. I know that some of these questions are difficult for you, but, as a professional nurse, I am obligated to respect your confidentiality.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D. Respecting the client's privacy while acknowledging the difficulty of the situation and explaining the professional obligation to maintain confidentiality is the most therapeutic approach. This response shows empathy, understanding, and a commitment to confidentiality, which can help build trust and encourage the client to open up. Choices A, B, and C do not effectively address the client's concerns or emphasize the importance of confidentiality in a sensitive manner, making them less therapeutic responses in this situation.

2. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
• C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
• D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.

3. A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. ''These feelings are normal and will pass with time.''
• B. ''Increased energy can sometimes lead to increased risk for self-harm.''
• C. ''The medication needs more time to be effective.''
• D. ''Let's talk about the things that make you feel this way.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased energy without improvement in mood can increase the risk of self-harm in clients with depression. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this potential risk and closely monitor the client for any signs of self-harm. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the client's persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness as normal may invalidate her experiences. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine (Prozac) typically starts showing effectiveness within a few weeks, so further delay is concerning. Choice D is incorrect because while discussing the client's feelings is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the potential risk of self-harm associated with increased energy.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage group activities to decrease isolation.
• B. Provide a structured environment with routine activities.
• C. Limit the client's physical activity to prevent exhaustion.
• D. Allow the client to choose activities freely.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may exhibit excessive energy, impulsivity, and disorganized behavior. Providing a structured environment with routine activities is the most appropriate nursing intervention. This approach can help regulate the client's behavior, reduce impulsivity, and prevent engaging in potentially harmful activities. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may exacerbate the client's symptoms due to overstimulation. Limiting physical activity (Choice C) may not address the need for structure and routine during a manic episode. Allowing the client to choose activities freely (Choice D) can lead to impulsive decision-making and may not provide the necessary boundaries required to manage the manic symptoms effectively.

5. A client with panic disorder is prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). What is the most important information for the nurse to provide?

• A. You should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. It may take several weeks for you to feel the full effect.
• C. This medication may cause a significant increase in appetite.
• D. You may experience dizziness, so avoid driving.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. SSRIs like sertraline may take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to inform the client to be patient with the treatment. Choice A is not the most crucial information regarding sertraline. Choice C is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is important but not as crucial as informing about the delayed onset of action.

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