Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action for the LPN/LVN?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• B. Administer oral hypoglycemic agents.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently.
• D. Provide a high-calorie diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin as prescribed. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a critically high blood glucose level like 600 mg/dL, the priority action is to lower the blood glucose level promptly to prevent complications. Insulin is the appropriate medication to rapidly reduce high blood glucose levels. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents may not act quickly enough in this critical situation. While monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is important, immediate intervention to lower the high blood glucose level takes precedence. Providing a high-calorie diet is contraindicated in this scenario as it would further elevate the blood glucose level.

2. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease who is ambulatory but requires total assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs). The nurse notices that the patient is edentulous. Which area should the nurse assess?

• A. Assess oral cavity.
• B. Assess room for drafts.
• C. Assess ankles for edema.
• D. Assess for reduced sensations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the oral cavity. 'Edentulous' means without teeth, so the nurse should assess the oral cavity for any issues related to oral health, dentures, or potential complications. This assessment is crucial to prevent oral health problems and ensure proper care for the patient. Assessing the room for drafts (choice B) is unrelated to the patient's edentulous status and does not address the immediate care needs. Assessing ankles for edema (choice C) is important for circulatory assessment but not directly related to the patient being edentulous. Assessing for reduced sensations (choice D) would be more relevant for neurological or sensory concerns, which are not specifically associated with being edentulous.

3. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?

• A. Testicular examination
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Fecal occult blood
• D. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.

4. A young mother of three children complains of increased anxiety during her annual physical exam. What information should the LPN/LVN obtain first?

• A. Sexual activity patterns.
• B. Nutritional history.
• C. Leisure activities.
• D. Financial stressors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should first obtain the nutritional history in this scenario. Nutrition plays a crucial role in mental health, and deficiencies or imbalances in diet can contribute to anxiety symptoms. Understanding the mother's nutritional intake can help identify any factors exacerbating her anxiety. Sexual activity patterns are not directly relevant to her anxiety symptoms unless specifically indicated. Leisure activities and financial stressors may be important but are secondary to addressing the potential impact of nutrition on anxiety.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

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