HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action for the LPN/LVN?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- B. Administer oral hypoglycemic agents.
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently.
- D. Provide a high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin as prescribed. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a critically high blood glucose level like 600 mg/dL, the priority action is to lower the blood glucose level promptly to prevent complications. Insulin is the appropriate medication to rapidly reduce high blood glucose levels. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents may not act quickly enough in this critical situation. While monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is important, immediate intervention to lower the high blood glucose level takes precedence. Providing a high-calorie diet is contraindicated in this scenario as it would further elevate the blood glucose level.
2. What title should be given to this role in occupational health? An advanced practice nurse who provides workers with primary care services with an emphasis on the diagnosis and management of common acute illnesses/injuries and stable chronic diseases.
- A. case manager
- B. nurse consultant
- C. clinician nurse practitioner
- D. health promotion specialist
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct title for this role is a clinician nurse practitioner as they provide primary care services, including diagnosing and managing illnesses. Choice A, case manager, typically focuses on coordinating care and services for patients. Choice B, nurse consultant, involves providing expert advice and guidance. Choice D, health promotion specialist, concentrates on promoting health and preventing diseases rather than diagnosing and treating illnesses.
3. An additional defect is associated with exstrophy of the bladder. For what anomaly should the nurse assess the infant?
- A. Imperforate anus
- B. Absence of one kidney
- C. Congenital heart disease
- D. Pubic bone malformation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, pubic bone malformation. Exstrophy of the bladder is commonly associated with pubic bone malformation because the condition involves a defect in the pelvic region. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Imperforate anus, absence of one kidney, and congenital heart disease are not typically associated with exstrophy of the bladder.
4. A client has a prescription for 5 units of regular insulin and 10 units of NPH insulin to mix together and administer subcutaneously. Determine the correct order of steps for this procedure.
- A. Inject 5 units of air into the bottle of regular insulin
- B. Withdraw the correct dose of NPH insulin from the bottle
- C. Inject 10 units of air into the bottle of NPH insulin
- D. Withdraw the correct dose of regular insulin from the bottle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct order of steps for this procedure is to first inject air into the NPH insulin bottle to prevent vacuum formation. After injecting air into the NPH insulin, the next step is to withdraw the correct dose of regular insulin from its bottle. This sequence ensures that the regular insulin is drawn after the NPH insulin, preventing contamination and ensuring accurate dosing. Therefore, choice B is correct. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because air should be injected into the NPH insulin first, not the regular insulin, and the doses should be withdrawn in the appropriate order to maintain the integrity and potency of each insulin type.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Depression
- C. Sun-downing syndrome
- D. Medication side effects
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.