HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action for the LPN/LVN?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- B. Administer oral hypoglycemic agents.
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently.
- D. Provide a high-calorie diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin as prescribed. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a critically high blood glucose level like 600 mg/dL, the priority action is to lower the blood glucose level promptly to prevent complications. Insulin is the appropriate medication to rapidly reduce high blood glucose levels. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents may not act quickly enough in this critical situation. While monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is important, immediate intervention to lower the high blood glucose level takes precedence. Providing a high-calorie diet is contraindicated in this scenario as it would further elevate the blood glucose level.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an NG tube for a client admitted with bowel obstruction. Which of the following should the healthcare professional do first?
- A. Explain the procedure to the client
- B. Measure the length of the NG tube
- C. Lubricate the NG tube
- D. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Explaining the procedure to the client is the initial and most important step that the healthcare professional should take before inserting an NG tube. By explaining the procedure, the healthcare professional ensures the client's understanding, obtains informed consent, and fosters cooperation. Measuring the length of the NG tube, lubricating the tube, and positioning the client in a high Fowler's position are essential steps in the NG tube insertion process but should come after the client has been informed and consented to the procedure.
3. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?
- A. Testicular examination
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Fecal occult blood
- D. Prostate-specific antigen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.
4. A client is on bed rest following an abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings indicates the need to increase the frequency of position changes?
- A. Flat rash on the client's ankle
- B. Non-blanching red area over the client's trochanter
- C. Ecchymosis on the client's left shoulder
- D. Petechiae on the client's right anterior thigh
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presence of a non-blanching red area over the client's trochanter is a concerning finding as it indicates possible pressure ulcer formation. This finding necessitates an increase in the frequency of position changes to prevent skin breakdown. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the need for increased position changes. A flat rash, ecchymosis, and petechiae may have different causes and would not be addressed by changing the client's position more frequently.
5. How should the nurse transcribe the dosage of this medication on the client's medical record?
- A. 0.3 mg
- B. 0.3 mg
- C. 0.30 mg
- D. 3/10 mg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct way to transcribe the dosage of three tenths of a milligram of levothyroxine IV STAT is 0.3 mg. When expressing decimals less than 1, there should be a leading zero before the decimal point. Choice A is incorrect (.3 mg) because it lacks the leading zero. Choice C (0.30 mg) is incorrect as it includes a trailing zero after the decimal point, which is unnecessary. Choice D (3/10 mg) is incorrect as it presents the dosage as a fraction, which is not the standard format for transcribing medication dosages. Therefore, B (0.3 mg) is the most appropriate and accurate way to document this prescription on the client's medical record.
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