HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. A client who has just had a mastectomy has a closed wound suction device (hemovac) in place. Which nursing action will ensure proper operation of the device?
- A. Collapsing the device whenever it is 1/2 to 2/3 full of air.
- B. Emptying the device every 4 hours.
- C. Replacing the device every 24 hours.
- D. Keeping the device above the level of the surgical site.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Collapsing the device when it is 1/2 to 2/3 full of air is the correct nursing action to ensure proper operation of a closed wound suction device (hemovac). This action maintains negative pressure, which is essential for proper suction and drainage of the wound. Emptying the device every 4 hours (Choice B) is not necessary as the focus should be on collapsing it appropriately. Replacing the device every 24 hours (Choice C) is not a standard practice unless indicated by the healthcare provider. Keeping the device above the level of the surgical site (Choice D) is not necessary for the device's proper operation; collapsing it to maintain negative pressure is the key action.
2. A client is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Polyuria
- C. Bilateral crackles
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilateral crackles. Bilateral crackles indicate respiratory complications, which can occur as an adverse effect of an epidural block with opioid analgesics. Hypotension (Choice A) is a common side effect of epidural opioids but is not typically monitored via crackles. Polyuria (Choice B) is excessive urination and is not directly associated with epidural blocks. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is high blood sugar levels and is not a typical adverse effect of epidural opioids.
3. A child with sickle cell anemia develops severe chest pain, fever, a cough, and dyspnea. The nurse's first action is to
- A. administer 100% oxygen to relieve hypoxia
- B. administer pain medication to relieve symptoms
- C. notify the practitioner because chest syndrome is suspected
- D. notify the practitioner because the child may be having a stroke
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a child with sickle cell anemia experiencing severe chest pain, fever, cough, and dyspnea, the priority action is to suspect acute chest syndrome, a life-threatening complication. The nurse's first action should be to notify the practitioner for immediate evaluation and intervention. Administering 100% oxygen (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the initial priority. Administering pain medication (Choice B) should not precede notifying the practitioner, as addressing the underlying cause is crucial. The symptoms described are more indicative of acute chest syndrome than a stroke, so notifying the practitioner for chest syndrome (Choice C) takes precedence over suspecting a stroke (Choice D).
4. A client with asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Albuterol can cause tachycardia as a side effect due to its stimulant effect on the heart. It acts as a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, leading to increased heart rate. Hypoglycemia (choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is also not typically associated with albuterol use. Hypotension (choice D) is less likely to occur as albuterol usually causes tachycardia rather than hypotension.
5. A client is scheduled to have a blood test for cholesterol and triglycerides the next day. The nurse would tell the client
- A. ''Be sure to eat a fat-free diet until the test.''
- B. ''Do not eat or drink anything but water for 12 hours before the blood test.''
- C. ''Have the blood drawn within 2 hours of eating breakfast.''
- D. ''Stay at the laboratory so 2 blood samples can be drawn an hour apart.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fasting for at least 12 hours is necessary before a cholesterol and triglyceride test to ensure accurate results by avoiding fluctuations that can occur after eating. Choice A is incorrect because a fat-free diet is not required; fasting is. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests having the test right after eating, which can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to stay at the laboratory for 2 blood samples unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider.