Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is developing an individualized plan of care for a patient. Which action is important for the nurse to take?

• A. Establish goals that are measurable and realistic.
• B. Set goals that are a little beyond the capabilities of the patient.
• C. Use the nurse's own judgment and not be swayed by family desires.
• D. Explain that without taking alignment risks, there can be no progress.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When developing an individualized plan of care for a patient, the nurse must set goals that are specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and time-bound (SMART). Choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of establishing goals that are measurable and realistic, ensuring they are attainable within a specific timeframe. Setting goals that are beyond the capabilities of the patient (Choice B) can lead to frustration and lack of progress. Using only the nurse's judgment and disregarding family desires (Choice C) may not consider important aspects of the patient's social support and preferences. Explaining that progress requires taking alignment risks (Choice D) is not a standard approach in nursing care planning and may confuse the patient or hinder trust in the nurse's decision-making.

2. When should the nurse plan to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity as ordered by a client's provider?

• A. In the morning upon rising.
• B. Immediately after the client eats breakfast.
• C. Before the client goes to bed.
• D. After the client has had a drink of water.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct time to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is in the morning upon rising. This timing ensures the most concentrated sample as sputum produced overnight tends to accumulate and sit in the airways, providing a quality sample for testing. Collecting the specimen immediately after eating breakfast (choice B) may introduce food particles that could contaminate the sample. Collecting it before bed (choice C) may lead to a diluted sample due to daily activities. Collecting the specimen after having a drink of water (choice D) can also result in a diluted sample, impacting the accuracy of the test results.

3. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

• A. Screening for early symptoms
• B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
• C. Elimination of the exposure
• D. Increasing awareness of symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB). Which type of isolation precautions should the healthcare provider implement?

• A. Droplet precautions
• B. Airborne precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Standard precautions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB), airborne precautions should be implemented. Tuberculosis is spread through the air via droplet nuclei, requiring the use of airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of the infection. Droplet precautions are used for diseases spread by large respiratory droplets, such as influenza or pertussis. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread through direct contact, such as MRSA. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the transmission of infections from blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.

5. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client about self-administering heparin.

• A. Administer medication in the abdomen.
• B. Administer medication in the thigh.
• C. Administer medication in the upper arm.
• D. Administer medication in the buttock.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heparin is typically administered in the abdomen for self-injection to avoid muscle tissue and for better absorption. The subcutaneous tissue in the abdomen provides a larger area for injection and is usually recommended for heparin administration. Administering heparin in the thigh, upper arm, or buttock may not be as effective or safe as the abdomen due to variations in absorption rates and potential risks associated with muscle injection.

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