Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is caring for a client who is post-operative following a hip replacement. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Pain at the surgical site
• B. Swelling in the affected leg
• C. Elevated temperature
• D. Shortness of breath

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical assessment finding that could indicate a pulmonary embolism or other serious complication related to surgery, such as a respiratory issue or cardiac problem. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications or harm to the client. Pain at the surgical site is common post-operatively and can be managed with appropriate pain relief measures. Swelling in the affected leg is expected after a hip replacement and can often be managed conservatively or monitored closely. An elevated temperature could be a sign of infection, which is important to address but may not require immediate intervention unless other symptoms of sepsis are present.

2. When teaching the guardian of a 12-year-old male client about manifestations of puberty, which of the following physical changes typically occurs first?

• A. Appearance of downy hair on the upper lip
• B. Hair growth in the axillae
• C. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum
• D. Deepening of the voice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During puberty in males, the first physical change that typically occurs is the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. This change is due to increased production of testosterone, which stimulates growth and development of the genital organs. The appearance of downy hair on the upper lip (Choice A) and hair growth in the axillae (Choice B) usually follow the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. Deepening of the voice (Choice D) is a later stage change that occurs during puberty as the larynx (voice box) grows and the vocal cords lengthen and thicken.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

4. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

• A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
• B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
• C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
• D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.

5. A client is grieving the loss of her partner and expresses thoughts of not wanting to live. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request additional support for the client from her family.
• B. Ask the client if she plans to harm herself.
• C. Inform the client that feeling this way is a normal response to grief.
• D. Suggest that the client seek counseling for support.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to ask the client if she plans to harm herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk of self-harm or suicide. Providing immediate safety and appropriate interventions is the priority when a client expresses such thoughts. Requesting additional support from the family (Choice A) may be helpful but does not address the immediate safety concern. Informing the client that feeling this way is normal (Choice C) may invalidate her feelings and does not address the safety risk. Suggesting counseling (Choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority when assessing for self-harm or suicide risk.

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