the nurse is caring for a client who is post operative following a hip replacement which assessment finding would require immediate intervention
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HESI LPN

Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. The healthcare professional is caring for a client who is post-operative following a hip replacement. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical assessment finding that could indicate a pulmonary embolism or other serious complication related to surgery, such as a respiratory issue or cardiac problem. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications or harm to the client. Pain at the surgical site is common post-operatively and can be managed with appropriate pain relief measures. Swelling in the affected leg is expected after a hip replacement and can often be managed conservatively or monitored closely. An elevated temperature could be a sign of infection, which is important to address but may not require immediate intervention unless other symptoms of sepsis are present.

2. A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for managing mild pain. Choice A is incorrect as increasing the frequency of pain medication without consulting healthcare providers can lead to adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as distracting techniques like breathing faster may not address the pain effectively. Choice D is incorrect as avoidance of physical activity due to pain can hinder postoperative recovery.

3. The client is preparing for discharge following treatment for heart failure. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking water pills (diuretics) only when feeling short of breath is incorrect. Diuretics should be taken regularly as prescribed to manage fluid retention. Option A is correct as daily weight monitoring helps track for fluid retention. Option B is correct as worsening leg swelling should prompt contacting the healthcare provider. Option D is correct as limiting salt intake is essential in managing heart failure. Therefore, option C is the statement that indicates a need for further teaching.

4. The nurse is assessing a client who has just been admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which finding is most important for the LPN/LVN to report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypotension is a critical finding that should be reported immediately in a client with acute pancreatitis as it may indicate severe complications such as hemorrhage or shock. While elevated serum lipase level, severe abdominal pain, and nausea/vomiting are common manifestations of acute pancreatitis, hypotension is a more urgent sign requiring immediate attention to prevent further deterioration. Hypotension can be a sign of significant fluid loss, hemorrhage, or sepsis, which are potentially life-threatening conditions that need prompt intervention. Elevated serum lipase levels, severe abdominal pain, and nausea/vomiting are important in the assessment of pancreatitis but do not indicate the same level of immediate danger as hypotension does.

5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

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