Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued and is experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client's laboratory values to validate the existence of which condition?

• A. Hyperphosphatemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypermagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. Checking the client's laboratory values for potassium will help confirm this diagnosis. Hyperphosphatemia (Choice A) is an elevated phosphate level in the blood, which is not consistent with the symptoms described. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is a low calcium level and typically presents with different symptoms than those mentioned in the scenario. Hypermagnesemia (Choice C) is an excess of magnesium in the blood and does not align with the symptoms of muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias observed in the client.

2. A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. How many times per hour should the nurse encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer?

• A. 4-5 times per hour
• B. 2-3 times per hour
• C. 6-7 times per hour
• D. 8-10 times per hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use the incentive spirometer 4-5 times per hour is the correct approach post-gallbladder surgery under general anesthesia. This frequency helps prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis, by promoting lung expansion. Choices B, C, and D suggest either too few or too many sessions per hour, which may not be optimal for the client's respiratory recovery needs. It is important to strike a balance between ensuring adequate lung expansion and not overexerting the client, which is why 4-5 times per hour is the recommended frequency.

3. When administering an otic medication to an older adult client, which action should the nurse take to ensure that the medication reaches the inner ear?

• A. Press gently on the tragus of the client's ear
• B. Pack a small piece of cotton deep into the client's ear canal
• C. Move the client's auricle down and back toward their head
• D. Tilt the client's head backward for 5 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to ensure that otic medication reaches the inner ear is to press gently on the tragus. The tragus is a small cartilaginous projection in front of the ear canal. Pressing on it helps to straighten the ear canal, allowing the medication to reach the inner ear. Packing cotton or moving the auricle can obstruct the ear canal and prevent proper medication delivery. Tilting the client's head backward is not necessary and may not facilitate the medication reaching the inner ear as effectively as pressing on the tragus.

4. A client is to have mafenide (Sulfamylon) cream applied to burned areas. For which serious side effect of mafenide therapy should the LPN/LVN monitor this client?

• A. Curling ulcer
• B. Renal shutdown
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Hemolysis of red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metabolic acidosis is a serious side effect of mafenide therapy that should be closely monitored. Mafenide can lead to metabolic acidosis due to its inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, resulting in the accumulation of carbonic acid. Curling ulcer (Choice A) is a stress-related mucosal lesion that occurs in the duodenum, primarily due to severe burns, not directly related to mafenide therapy. Renal shutdown (Choice B) is not a common side effect of mafenide therapy. Hemolysis of red blood cells (Choice D) is not a recognized side effect of mafenide cream application.

5. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?

• A. Bleeding time
• B. Coagulation time
• C. Prothrombin time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.

Similar Questions