Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued and is experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client's laboratory values to validate the existence of which condition?

• A. Hyperphosphatemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypermagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. Checking the client's laboratory values for potassium will help confirm this diagnosis. Hyperphosphatemia (Choice A) is an elevated phosphate level in the blood, which is not consistent with the symptoms described. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) is a low calcium level and typically presents with different symptoms than those mentioned in the scenario. Hypermagnesemia (Choice C) is an excess of magnesium in the blood and does not align with the symptoms of muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias observed in the client.

2. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports diarrhea and decreased urination for 4 days. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess the client's skin turgor?

• A. Grasp a skin fold on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note whether it springs back
• B. Pinch the skin on the back of the hand and observe for elasticity
• C. Assess the skin turgor on the abdomen by pinching the skin
• D. Check the skin turgor by pressing on the forearm and observing the rebound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess skin turgor, the nurse should grasp a skin fold on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note whether it springs back. This method is preferred for older adults and in cases of significant fluid imbalance. Option B is incorrect as assessing skin turgor on the back of the hand is not the standard assessment site for skin turgor. Option C is incorrect as the abdomen is not the typical area for assessing skin turgor; the chest under the clavicle is a more accurate site. Option D is incorrect as pressing on the forearm is not the appropriate site for evaluating skin turgor; the chest under the clavicle is the recommended location for this assessment.

3. A client is to have mafenide (Sulfamylon) cream applied to burned areas. For which serious side effect of mafenide therapy should the LPN/LVN monitor this client?

• A. Curling ulcer
• B. Renal shutdown
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Hemolysis of red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metabolic acidosis is a serious side effect of mafenide therapy that should be closely monitored. Mafenide can lead to metabolic acidosis due to its inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, resulting in the accumulation of carbonic acid. Curling ulcer (Choice A) is a stress-related mucosal lesion that occurs in the duodenum, primarily due to severe burns, not directly related to mafenide therapy. Renal shutdown (Choice B) is not a common side effect of mafenide therapy. Hemolysis of red blood cells (Choice D) is not a recognized side effect of mafenide cream application.

4. A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to include?

• A. Monitor the client for pain in the suprapubic region.
• B. Ensure the client is free of metal objects.
• C. Administer 240 mL (8 oz) of oral contrast before the procedure.
• D. Assist the client with a bowel cleansing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include before an intravenous pyelogram is ensuring the client is free of metal objects. Metal objects can interfere with the imaging procedure and may need to be removed to prevent artifacts. Monitoring for pain in the suprapubic region (choice A) is not directly related to the procedure and is not a standard pre-procedure action. Administering oral contrast (choice C) is more common for other imaging studies like a CT scan, not an intravenous pyelogram. Assisting with a bowel cleansing (choice D) is not typically required before an intravenous pyelogram.

5. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular.' A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deep state of unconsciousness, which may not be accurate in this case. Choice C is incorrect as stating the client 'appears to be sleeping' may not accurately reflect the severity of the situation. Choice D is incorrect because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 would not typically correspond to a non-responsive state.

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