HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed antibiotics. What should the nurse inform the client about antibiotic therapy?
- A. It may interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness
- B. It can cause drowsiness
- C. It should be taken with meals
- D. Completing the full course is crucial
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to fully eradicate the infection and prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Informing the client about the importance of finishing the prescribed course helps in ensuring the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of recurrence. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotics do not generally interfere with oral contraceptive effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because drowsiness is not a common side effect of antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect because while some antibiotics may need to be taken with meals, it is not a universal rule for all antibiotics.
2. A client is prescribed metformin for the management of type 2 diabetes. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreas.
- B. Increases insulin sensitivity in various tissues.
- C. Decreases hepatic glucose production.
- D. Delays absorption of glucose from the intestines.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin primarily works by reducing the production of glucose in the liver (hepatic glucose production) and by improving insulin sensitivity in various tissues. Choice A is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas. Choice B is incorrect as metformin increases insulin sensitivity in various tissues, not just muscle cells. Choice D is incorrect as metformin does not delay glucose absorption from the intestines.
3. The nurse is monitoring a client with an IV infusion in the left antecubital fossa. The site is warm, red, and without swelling. What conclusion should the nurse draw from these findings?
- A. The IV fluids are infusing into the subcutaneous tissues
- B. The infusion pump is functioning properly
- C. The insertion date should be verified and the IV discontinued
- D. The site is inflamed and should be reported
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness at the IV site without swelling indicate a localized reaction, which is common and does not necessarily indicate infiltration of IV fluids into the subcutaneous tissues. The absence of swelling suggests that the IV is correctly placed. Therefore, the nurse should conclude that the infusion pump is functioning properly. Choice A is incorrect as warmth and redness alone do not indicate subcutaneous infiltration. Choice C is incorrect as discontinuing the IV solely based on warmth and redness without swelling is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the absence of swelling signifies a localized reaction rather than inflammation requiring immediate reporting.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with an intravenous infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Slow the rate of infusion
- B. Apply a warm compress to the site
- C. Discontinue the IV infusion
- D. Elevate the affected arm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion (Choice C). Pain and swelling at the IV site can indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which are serious complications that require immediate action. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue and can potentially worsen the condition. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevating the affected arm (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; discontinuing the infusion takes precedence to prevent further harm.
5. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?
- A. Decreased sexual libido
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Quickening
- D. Nocturia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access