the unlicensed assistive personnel uap reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day what action is best for the n
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Final Exam

1. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. What action is best for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reasons for refusal can guide appropriate interventions, respecting client autonomy while addressing any underlying issues. Choice B is not the best course of action as involving family members may not address the client's specific concerns. Choice C, while important, may not directly address the immediate refusal to bathe. Choice D does not address the underlying reasons for the refusal and may not lead to a resolution.

2. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

4. The nurse is monitoring a client who started taking a new medication for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most important aspect to monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client starts a new medication for rheumatoid arthritis, it is crucial to monitor all necessary aspects based on the specific medication prescribed. Different medications can have varying side effects and impacts on different organ systems. Monitoring all relevant parameters ensures the early detection of any adverse effects and helps to maintain the client's safety. While monitoring for signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, liver function tests, and renal function tests are all important in certain situations, the priority is to conduct comprehensive monitoring based on the medication's known effects.

5. The client has chronic renal failure. What dietary modification is most important for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial in chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia, which can lead to cardiac complications. Excessive protein intake can increase the workload on the kidneys and may result in the accumulation of uremic toxins. Increasing sodium intake is generally discouraged in chronic renal failure due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. Encouraging dairy products may not be suitable for all clients with chronic renal failure, as they are a significant source of phosphorus, which needs to be limited in renal failure to prevent mineral imbalances.

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