Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
• B. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
• C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
• D. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. This finding may indicate an air leak, which can compromise the effectiveness of the chest tube in re-expanding the lung. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (choice B) may signify that the chest tube is blocked, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition. Tidaling in the water seal chamber (choice C) is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the chest tube system. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site (choice D) suggests air leakage but is not as urgent as continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.

2. The client with a new colostomy is being taught about colostomy care. Which statement by the client indicates effective learning?

• A. I will change my colostomy bag every day.
• B. I should eat a low-fiber diet.
• C. I need to inspect the stoma daily for color and swelling.
• D. I can skip my colostomy care if I feel well.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because inspecting the stoma daily is crucial in identifying any early signs of complications or infections. Choice A is incorrect because changing the colostomy bag daily is not necessary unless there is a specific reason to do so. Choice B is incorrect as a low-fiber diet is not usually recommended for colostomy care. Choice D is incorrect because colostomy care should be performed regularly regardless of how the client feels.

3. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?

• A. Before bedtime, at 2000
• B. After breakfast
• C. Before the evening meal
• D. After lunch

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who has just received a blood transfusion. The client reports chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Slow down the rate of the transfusion
• B. Administer an antipyretic
• C. Stop the transfusion immediately
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chills and back pain are signs of a possible transfusion reaction, which can indicate severe complications like a hemolytic reaction or sepsis. The priority action for the nurse is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further harm to the client. Slowing the rate of the transfusion or administering an antipyretic will not address the underlying cause of the reaction and could potentially worsen the client's condition. Notifying the healthcare provider should be done after ensuring the client's immediate safety by stopping the transfusion.

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