what is the primary function of neutrophils
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. What is the primary function of neutrophils?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Phagocytotic action. Neutrophils are key components of the immune system, primarily involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria and other pathogens. Choice A, Heparin secretion, is incorrect as heparin is primarily secreted by mast cells and basophils. Choice B, Transport oxygen, is incorrect as this is mainly the function of red blood cells. Choice D, Antibody formation, is incorrect as antibody production is primarily carried out by B lymphocytes.

2. The wife is observed shaving her husband's beard with a safety razor. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should encourage the wife to continue shaving her husband. The rationale behind this is that the wife is already performing the task, so abrupt interference may lead to potential harm or emotional distress. It is crucial for the nurse to carefully observe the situation and assess for any safety concerns. While teaching proper techniques (Choice B) is important, it can be addressed later in a non-critical manner to prevent skin irritation and injury. Advising to shave against the hair growth (Choice A) may cause skin irritation and cuts. Although demonstrating the correct procedure (Choice D) may be helpful, it is essential to consider the current dynamics and respect the wife's autonomy in caring for her husband.

3. When teaching a client about managing hypertension, what dietary advice should be emphasized?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When managing hypertension, it is crucial to adopt comprehensive dietary changes. This includes reducing sodium intake to help lower blood pressure, increasing potassium intake to counteract the effects of sodium and help regulate blood pressure, and limiting alcohol consumption as excessive alcohol can raise blood pressure. Therefore, emphasizing all the options provided (A, B, and C) is essential in effectively managing hypertension and reducing overall cardiovascular risk. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as a single dietary modification but collectively work together to support blood pressure management.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gradual onset of dyspnea.' While pulmonary embolism can present with various symptoms, the most common include sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain (often pleuritic in nature), tachypnea, and tachycardia. Bilateral leg swelling is more commonly associated with conditions like deep vein thrombosis, not pulmonary embolism. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation may be seen in conditions like pneumothorax, not typically in pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the gradual onset of dyspnea is the most indicative symptom of pulmonary embolism in this scenario.

5. The nurse observes a client with new-onset tachycardia. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client presents with new-onset tachycardia, the first action the nurse should take is to assess for any associated symptoms like chest pain or discomfort. This is important to differentiate the potential causes of tachycardia and guide appropriate interventions. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) may be relevant in certain situations but is not the priority when tachycardia is observed. Administering prescribed beta-blockers (Choice B) should only be done after a comprehensive assessment and healthcare provider's orders. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is important, but assessing for chest pain or discomfort takes precedence in this scenario to rule out cardiac causes of tachycardia.

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