Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary function of neutrophils?

• A. Heparin secretion
• B. Transport oxygen
• C. Phagocytotic action
• D. Antibody formation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Phagocytotic action. Neutrophils are key components of the immune system, primarily involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria and other pathogens. Choice A, Heparin secretion, is incorrect as heparin is primarily secreted by mast cells and basophils. Choice B, Transport oxygen, is incorrect as this is mainly the function of red blood cells. Choice D, Antibody formation, is incorrect as antibody production is primarily carried out by B lymphocytes.

2. The client is being taught about managing chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which dietary restriction should be emphasized the most?

• A. Limit consumption of high-fiber foods
• B. Restrict protein intake
• C. Avoid dairy products
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restricting protein intake is vital in managing chronic kidney disease (CKD) as it helps decrease the kidneys' workload and slows down disease progression. High-fiber foods are generally beneficial for health and should not be limited in CKD management. Dairy products can be consumed moderately unless contraindicated. While adequate fluid intake is crucial, increasing intake excessively may not be suitable for all CKD patients, especially those with fluid restrictions. Therefore, the most crucial dietary restriction to emphasize in CKD management is restricting protein intake.

3. After placing a client at 26-weeks gestation in the lithotomy position, the client complains of dizziness and becomes pale and diaphoretic. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths.
• B. Place a wedge under the client's hip.
• C. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
• D. Remove the client's legs from the stirrups.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing a wedge under the client's hip is the correct action in this scenario. This helps relieve the pressure on the vena cava, which can become compressed in the lithotomy position during pregnancy, improving circulation and reducing symptoms like dizziness and pallor. Instructing the client to take deep breaths (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position (Choice C) would worsen the situation by further compressing the vena cava. Removing the client's legs from the stirrups (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the issue.

4. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Hypocalcemia.
• D. Hypokalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

5. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

• A. Decreased sexual libido
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Quickening
• D. Nocturia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

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