HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. The client is 4 hours post-operative from a cesarean section and complains of gas pain and bloating. What non-pharmacological intervention can the nurse provide?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate
- B. Apply a heating pad
- C. Provide a carbonated beverage
- D. Teach relaxation techniques
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to ambulate. Early ambulation helps alleviate gas pain and bloating by promoting gastrointestinal motility and reducing the accumulation of gas in the abdomen. Applying a heating pad may provide comfort for some types of pain but is not specifically effective for gas pain. Providing a carbonated beverage can actually worsen gas pain due to the introduction of more gas into the digestive system. Teaching relaxation techniques may be beneficial for overall comfort but may not directly address the gas pain and bloating experienced post-cesarean section.
2. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Serum glucose of 180 mg/dL
- B. Blood pH of 7.30
- C. Positive urine ketones
- D. Serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive urine ketones. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body breaks down fat for energy due to a lack of insulin, leading to ketone production. Positive urine ketones are a hallmark laboratory finding in DKA as they directly reflect the presence of ketosis. Choice A, serum glucose of 180 mg/dL, may be elevated in DKA, but it is not specific to this condition. Choice B, blood pH of 7.30, often shows acidosis in DKA, but urine ketones are more specific to the presence of ketosis. Choice D, serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, would typically be low in DKA due to acidosis rather than elevated.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?
- A. Elevated AST and ALT levels
- B. Decreased albumin level
- C. Elevated bilirubin level
- D. Prolonged PT/INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.
5. A client with a history of stroke presents with dysphagia. What is the most important nursing intervention to prevent aspiration?
- A. Encourage the client to drink water between meals
- B. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals
- C. Provide the client with thickened liquids
- D. Allow the client to eat quickly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (sitting upright at a 90-degree angle) helps reduce the risk of aspiration by ensuring that the airway is protected during swallowing. This position facilitates easier swallowing and decreases the likelihood of food or liquids entering the respiratory tract. Encouraging the client to drink water between meals (choice A) does not directly address the risk of aspiration during meals. Providing thickened liquids (choice C) may be necessary for some patients with dysphagia but is not the most important intervention to prevent aspiration. Allowing the client to eat quickly (choice D) without proper positioning and precautions can increase the risk of aspiration.
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