Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that she wants to stop taking her lithium. She states, 'I feel fine, and I don't think I need it anymore.' What should the nurse do first?

• A. Agree with the client that she seems fine now.
• B. Remind the client of the importance of lithium.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discontinue the lithium prescription.
• D. Arrange for a psychiatric evaluation for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder expresses a desire to stop taking lithium because they feel fine, the nurse's initial action should be to remind the client of the importance of lithium. This approach helps educate the client about the necessity of medication adherence in managing bipolar disorder. Agreeing with the client or immediately arranging a psychiatric evaluation may not address the root issue of medication non-adherence. Asking the healthcare provider to discontinue the prescription without further assessment and intervention could potentially jeopardize the client's stability and treatment plan.

2. A 35-year-old male client on the psychiatric unit of a general hospital believes that someone is trying to poison him. The nurse understands that a client's delusions are most likely related to his

• A. early childhood experiences involving authority issues.
• B. anger about being hospitalized.
• C. low self-esteem.
• D. phobic fear of food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Psychotic clients often experience delusions due to difficulties with trust and low self-esteem (C). In this case, the client's belief that someone is trying to poison him is likely a manifestation of his underlying issues with trust and self-worth. Building trust and promoting positive self-esteem are essential in caring for such clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because delusions are not primarily related to early childhood experiences involving authority issues, anger about hospitalization, or phobic fear of food. These factors do not directly contribute to the development of delusions in psychotic clients.

3. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement during the initial interview for a client who is admitted to the mental health unit?

• A. Establish rapport in each phase of the nurse-client relationship.
• B. Determine the client's ability to communicate effectively.
• C. Reflect on previous psychiatric interviews the nurse has performed.
• D. Ensure data is collected and recorded in a systematic sequence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Establishing rapport is the most important action during the initial interview for a client admitted to the mental health unit. Building rapport helps create a trusting relationship between the nurse and the client, which is essential for effective communication and the success of the therapeutic relationship. Choice B, determining the client's ability to communicate effectively, is important but secondary to establishing rapport. Choice C, reflecting on previous psychiatric interviews, is not as critical during the initial interview with a new client. Choice D, ensuring data collection and recording in a systematic sequence, is important but comes after establishing rapport to foster a therapeutic environment.

4. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

5. A female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Monitor the client's vital signs regularly.
• B. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• C. Offer the client frequent, high-calorie snacks.
• D. Weigh the client daily at the same time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh the client daily at the same time. Daily weights are crucial in monitoring the client's nutritional status and guiding treatment for weight restoration in anorexia nervosa. Monitoring vital signs is important but weighing the client daily takes precedence in this situation. Encouraging group therapy and offering high-calorie snacks are important aspects of treatment but do not take priority over monitoring the client's weight.

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