Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that she wants to stop taking her lithium. She states, 'I feel fine, and I don't think I need it anymore.' What should the nurse do first?

• A. Agree with the client that she seems fine now.
• B. Remind the client of the importance of lithium.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discontinue the lithium prescription.
• D. Arrange for a psychiatric evaluation for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder expresses a desire to stop taking lithium because they feel fine, the nurse's initial action should be to remind the client of the importance of lithium. This approach helps educate the client about the necessity of medication adherence in managing bipolar disorder. Agreeing with the client or immediately arranging a psychiatric evaluation may not address the root issue of medication non-adherence. Asking the healthcare provider to discontinue the prescription without further assessment and intervention could potentially jeopardize the client's stability and treatment plan.

2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse should include which information in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. This medication can cause physical dependence.
• B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice improvement.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. You may experience sedation as a side effect.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Buspirone takes time to become fully effective, so the client should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in anxiety symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone is not associated with physical dependence. Choice C is not directly related to buspirone but is generally a good practice when taking any medication. Choice D is less common with buspirone compared to other anxiety medications.

3. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?

• A. Dizziness when standing.
• B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Fever of 102°F.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.

4. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. Your healthcare provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.
• B. You must ambulate to avoid complications that could cause more discomfort than ambulating.
• C. I know how you feel. You're angry about having to ambulate, but this will help you get well.
• D. I'll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.

5. A female client with obsessive compulsive personality disorder is admitted to the hospital for a cardiac catheterization. The afternoon before the procedure, the client begins to keep detailed notes of the nursing care she is receiving and reports her findings to the RN at bedtime. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Explain to the client that her behavior invades the rights of the nursing staff.
• B. Ask the client to explain why she is keeping a detailed record of her nursing care.
• C. Teach the client strategies to control her obsessive compulsive behavior.
• D. Encourage the client to express her feelings regarding the upcoming procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to express her feelings can help address underlying anxieties and may reduce the need for obsessive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because it may come across as confrontational and could escalate the situation. Choice B is not the best initial action as it focuses on the behavior rather than the client's emotions. Choice C is premature without first addressing the client's emotional needs.

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