Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that she wants to stop taking her lithium. She states, 'I feel fine, and I don't think I need it anymore.' What should the nurse do first?

• A. Agree with the client that she seems fine now.
• B. Remind the client of the importance of lithium.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discontinue the lithium prescription.
• D. Arrange for a psychiatric evaluation for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder expresses a desire to stop taking lithium because they feel fine, the nurse's initial action should be to remind the client of the importance of lithium. This approach helps educate the client about the necessity of medication adherence in managing bipolar disorder. Agreeing with the client or immediately arranging a psychiatric evaluation may not address the root issue of medication non-adherence. Asking the healthcare provider to discontinue the prescription without further assessment and intervention could potentially jeopardize the client's stability and treatment plan.

2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse should include which information in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. This medication can cause physical dependence.
• B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice improvement.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. You may experience sedation as a side effect.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Buspirone takes time to become fully effective, so the client should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in anxiety symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone is not associated with physical dependence. Choice C is not directly related to buspirone but is generally a good practice when taking any medication. Choice D is less common with buspirone compared to other anxiety medications.

3. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has been prescribed lithium carbonate. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Do not change your salt intake while on this medication.
• C. Drink plenty of water and maintain a consistent salt intake.
• D. Avoid excessive intake of caffeine while on this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for a client prescribed lithium carbonate is not to change their salt intake. Alterations in sodium levels can impact lithium levels, leading to an increased risk of toxicity. Choice A is not crucial for lithium carbonate administration. While hydration is essential, maintaining a consistent salt intake is more critical than just increasing water intake (Choice C). Although caffeine can interact with lithium, it is not as important as maintaining a consistent salt intake (Choice D).

4. A client with a history of alcohol dependence tells the nurse that he has been sober for three months but has recently started drinking again. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Ask the client why he started drinking again.
• B. Provide information about support groups for sobriety.
• C. Discuss the consequences of drinking on his health.
• D. Encourage the client to express his feelings about relapse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to express his feelings about relapse is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation. This approach allows the nurse to address the underlying emotions and factors contributing to the relapse. Choice A, asking the client why he started drinking again, may come across as judgmental and might not be as effective in exploring the client's emotions. Choice B, providing information about support groups, is important but should come after addressing the client's current emotional state. Choice C, discussing the consequences of drinking, may be necessary at some point, but initially, the focus should be on the client's feelings and emotions surrounding the relapse.

5. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
• B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
• C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

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