HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. The nurse documents that a male client with paranoid schizophrenia is delusional. Which statement by the client confirms this assessment?
- A. The voices are telling me to kill the next person I see.
- B. The fire is burning my skin away right now.
- C. The snakes on the wall are going to eat me.
- D. The nurse at night is trying to poison me with pills.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Believing that the nurse is trying to poison him with pills is a clear indication of delusional paranoia, a common symptom in paranoid schizophrenia. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to paranoid delusions and are more indicative of hallucinations or other forms of delusions not specific to paranoia.
2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day arranging and rearranging items in their room. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Distract the client with another activity.
- B. Allow the client to continue the behavior.
- C. Set a time limit for the behavior.
- D. Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings is the most therapeutic intervention for a client with OCD spending excessive time on compulsive behaviors. By expressing their feelings, the client can explore the underlying anxiety that drives the compulsion. This intervention also provides an opportunity for the nurse to offer support and help the client develop coping strategies.\n Choice A, distracting the client with another activity, may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the behavior.\n Choice B, allowing the client to continue the behavior, does not promote therapeutic progress and may perpetuate the compulsion.\n Choice C, setting a time limit for the behavior, may create additional stress for the client and does not address the underlying emotional issues associated with OCD.
3. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is being treated with lorazepam (Ativan). What is the most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. This medication may cause drowsiness, so avoid driving.
- D. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan). Alcohol can enhance the sedative effects of lorazepam, increasing the risk of severe side effects and complications. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not the most critical teaching point, although it is essential to avoid activities that require mental alertness until the effects of the medication are known. Choice D is incorrect because abruptly stopping lorazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with depression who has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The client reports experiencing nausea. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. "You should stop taking the medication immediately."
- B. "Nausea is a common side effect and usually decreases over time."
- C. "Try taking the medication with food to reduce nausea."
- D. "I will inform the healthcare provider to change your medication."
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Nausea is a common side effect of sertraline, and clients should be reassured that it usually decreases as their body adjusts to the medication." Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Choice C is a good suggestion to reduce nausea by taking the medication with food but does not address the temporary nature of the side effect. Choice D is unnecessary at this point since nausea is a common side effect that may improve with time.
5. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?
- A. He ingested the drug 3 hours prior to admission to the emergency center.
- B. The family reports that he took an entire bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
- C. He is unresponsive to instructions and is unable to cooperate with emetic therapy.
- D. Those with repeated suicide attempts desire punishment to relieve their guilt.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness to instructions and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy would make it challenging to implement such therapy effectively. In such cases, gastric lavage may be necessary to remove the ingested substance. Choices A and B are important considerations in treatment planning but do not directly indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as medical treatments should never be used as punitive measures but rather for therapeutic purposes.
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