HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A 19-year-old female client with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa wants to help serve dinner trays to other clients on a psychiatric unit. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client's self-motivation by asking her to assist with other activities.
- B. Provide an alternative suggestion for the client to participate in the unit's activities.
- C. Allow the client to serve dinner trays to other clients but monitor closely for any signs of distress.
- D. Explain to the client that she needs to focus on her own recovery and cannot participate in serving dinner trays.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with anorexia should not be allowed to plan or prepare food for unit activities, as this can reinforce their perception of self-control. Allowing the client to serve dinner trays (C) may trigger distress or unhealthy behaviors. Therefore, it is best to provide an alternative suggestion for the client to participate in the unit's activities (B). Encouraging the client to assist with other activities (A) may inadvertently reinforce negative behaviors related to food. Explaining to the client that she cannot participate in serving dinner trays (D) without offering an alternative does not address the client's desire to help and may lead to feelings of rejection.
2. A male client with alcohol dependence is admitted for detoxification. The nurse knows that which assessment finding is indicative of alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Tremors
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tremors are a common sign of alcohol withdrawal. The central nervous system becomes hyperexcitable due to the suppression caused by chronic alcohol intake. Tremors are a manifestation of this hyperexcitability and are a key indicator of alcohol withdrawal. Bradycardia and hypotension are more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration rather than alcohol withdrawal. Hyperglycemia is not a typical finding in alcohol withdrawal; instead, hypoglycemia is more commonly seen due to the effects of alcohol on glucose metabolism.
3. The occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a MVA and taken to the hospital. The employee states, 'I can't believe this. What should I do?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?
- A. Tell me what you think should happen.
- B. How serious was the collision?
- C. What do you think you should do?
- D. Call for transportation to the hospital.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Providing immediate practical support, such as arranging transportation to the hospital, is the best response in this crisis situation. It helps the employee to take immediate action and supports her in a highly stressful moment. Choice A focuses on the employee's thoughts rather than providing immediate aid. Choice B is not a priority as the severity can be addressed later. Choice C puts the decision-making burden on the employee at a time of distress, which is not ideal. Therefore, choice D is the most appropriate response in this situation.
4. A client states that she hears God's voice telling her that she has sinned and needs to punish herself. Which response by the LPN/LVN is most important?
- A. How do you think you will be punished?
- B. Please tell staff when you think you need to punish yourself.
- C. What exactly do you think you have done to be punished?
- D. Let's talk about your strengths
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important response by the LPN/LVN is to encourage the client to communicate with staff when they feel the need to punish themselves. This approach can help assess the risk of self-harm and enable appropriate intervention. Choice A focuses more on the method of punishment rather than encouraging help-seeking behavior. Choice C seeks specific details about the perceived wrongdoing rather than addressing the immediate concern of self-punishment. Choice D, discussing strengths, does not directly address the client's current distress and potential self-harm risk.
5. A moderately depressed client who was hospitalized 2 days ago suddenly begins smiling and reporting that the crisis is over. The client says to a nurse, 'I'm finally cured.' The LPN/LVN interprets this behavior as a cue to modify the treatment plan by:
- A. Suggesting a reduction of medication
- B. Allowing increased 'in-room' activities
- C. Increasing the level of suicide precautions
- D. Allowing the client off-unit privileges as needed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A sudden improvement in mood and declaring being cured can be warning signs of a decision to attempt suicide. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to increase the level of suicide precautions to ensure the safety of the client. This can involve closer monitoring and restriction of items that could be harmful. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the potential risk of suicide that may be present with the sudden change in behavior.
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