a 19 year old female client with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa wants to help serve dinner trays to other clients on a psychiatric unit what action
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health Practice Exam

1. A 19-year-old female client with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa wants to help serve dinner trays to other clients on a psychiatric unit. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with anorexia should not be allowed to plan or prepare food for unit activities, as this can reinforce their perception of self-control. Allowing the client to serve dinner trays (C) may trigger distress or unhealthy behaviors. Therefore, it is best to provide an alternative suggestion for the client to participate in the unit's activities (B). Encouraging the client to assist with other activities (A) may inadvertently reinforce negative behaviors related to food. Explaining to the client that she cannot participate in serving dinner trays (D) without offering an alternative does not address the client's desire to help and may lead to feelings of rejection.

2. A client with a history of bipolar disorder presents to the emergency department with symptoms of mania. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering prescribed medication to manage symptoms is the priority intervention for a client with symptoms of mania. During a manic episode, the client may be at risk of harm to self or others due to impulsivity and poor judgment. Medication helps stabilize the client, reduce manic symptoms, and prevent further escalation. Providing a calm environment (choice B) is important but not the priority when the client's safety is at risk. Encouraging expression of feelings (choice C) and reinforcing medication adherence (choice D) are valuable aspects of care but addressing the acute symptoms of mania takes precedence to ensure the client's immediate safety and well-being.

3. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.

4. A male client with borderline personality disorder is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules. What is the best approach for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct approach for the nurse to take when dealing with a male client with borderline personality disorder who is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules is to enforce unit rules consistently with all clients. By maintaining consistency in enforcing rules, the nurse establishes clear boundaries and provides structure, which are essential for managing manipulative behavior in clients with borderline personality disorder. Ignoring the manipulative behaviors (Choice B) may lead to the reinforcement of negative behaviors. Providing the client with special privileges (Choice C) can enable further manipulation and is not recommended. Confronting the client directly about his behavior (Choice D) may escalate the situation and is less effective than consistent rule enforcement.

5. A client with panic disorder is experiencing a panic attack. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Encouraging slow, deep breathing is the priority intervention during a panic attack as it can help reduce the physiological symptoms and assist the client in regaining control. This technique can help decrease hyperventilation and promote relaxation. Choice B, asking the client to describe sensations, may be beneficial after the panic attack has subsided to gain insight into triggers or manifestations. Choice C, encouraging the client to focus on a calming image, can be helpful in managing anxiety but may not be as effective during the acute phase of a panic attack. Choice D, administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan), should only be considered if the client does not respond to initial non-pharmacological interventions or if the symptoms are severe and unmanageable.

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