HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A 19-year-old female client with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa wants to help serve dinner trays to other clients on a psychiatric unit. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client's self-motivation by asking her to assist with other activities.
- B. Provide an alternative suggestion for the client to participate in the unit's activities.
- C. Allow the client to serve dinner trays to other clients but monitor closely for any signs of distress.
- D. Explain to the client that she needs to focus on her own recovery and cannot participate in serving dinner trays.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with anorexia should not be allowed to plan or prepare food for unit activities, as this can reinforce their perception of self-control. Allowing the client to serve dinner trays (C) may trigger distress or unhealthy behaviors. Therefore, it is best to provide an alternative suggestion for the client to participate in the unit's activities (B). Encouraging the client to assist with other activities (A) may inadvertently reinforce negative behaviors related to food. Explaining to the client that she cannot participate in serving dinner trays (D) without offering an alternative does not address the client's desire to help and may lead to feelings of rejection.
2. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?
- A. Describes life as without purpose.
- B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
- C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
- D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.
3. A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. ''These feelings are normal and will pass with time.''
- B. ''Increased energy can sometimes lead to increased risk for self-harm.''
- C. ''The medication needs more time to be effective.''
- D. ''Let's talk about the things that make you feel this way.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased energy without improvement in mood can increase the risk of self-harm in clients with depression. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this potential risk and closely monitor the client for any signs of self-harm. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the client's persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness as normal may invalidate her experiences. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine (Prozac) typically starts showing effectiveness within a few weeks, so further delay is concerning. Choice D is incorrect because while discussing the client's feelings is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the potential risk of self-harm associated with increased energy.
4. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client's intelligence. Which factor should the nurse remember during this part of the mental status exam?
- A. Acute psychiatric illnesses impair intelligence.
- B. Intelligence is influenced by social and cultural factors.
- C. Poor concentration skills suggest limited intelligence.
- D. The inability to think abstractly indicates limited intelligence.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because intelligence is influenced by social and cultural factors. Social and cultural beliefs can impact how intelligence is perceived and expressed. Choice A is incorrect because acute psychiatric illnesses can affect cognitive functioning but not necessarily intelligence. Choice C is incorrect because poor concentration skills do not always correlate with limited intelligence. Choice D is incorrect because the inability to think abstractly is just one aspect of intelligence and does not solely indicate limited intelligence.
5. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this family member?
- A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
- B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
- C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
- D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide to the wife of the client diagnosed with schizophrenia is to offer factual information. Choice B is the correct answer as it explains that schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking. This response provides a simple and accurate explanation of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the wife's question about what schizophrenia is. Choice A focuses on emotional support rather than providing information about the disorder. Choice C gives false reassurance without addressing the nature of schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the question by suggesting the wife speak to the psychologist, missing an opportunity to educate and support the family member.
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