Nursing Elites

1. A 45-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation. Her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the last six months. The client has not gone to work for a month and has been terminated from her job. She has not left the house since that time. This client is displaying symptoms of which disorder?

• A. Claustrophobia.
• B. Acrophobia.
• C. Agoraphobia.
• D. Necrophobia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Agoraphobia. Agoraphobia involves the fear of situations where escape might be difficult, often leading to the individual avoiding public spaces or leaving their home. In this case, the client's reluctance to leave home, not going to work, and staying indoors for an extended period align with the symptoms of agoraphobia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Claustrophobia is the fear of confined spaces, acrophobia is the fear of heights, and necrophobia is the fear of death or dead things, none of which are consistent with the client's symptoms described in the scenario.

2. A newly admitted client describes her mission in life as one of saving her son by eliminating the 'provocative sluts' of the world. There are several attractive young women on the unit. What should the LPN/LVN do first?

• A. Ask the client for her definition of 'provocative sluts'
• B. Ask the young female clients on the unit to dress less provocatively
• C. Ask the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session
• D. Ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to take first is to ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients. This approach is crucial as it helps in monitoring the client's thoughts and behaviors, potentially preventing any harmful actions towards others on the unit. Asking for the client's definition of 'provocative sluts' (Choice A) may not address the immediate concern of monitoring the client's harmful thoughts. Asking the young female clients to dress less provocatively (Choice B) is inappropriate and victim-blaming. Asking the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session (Choice C) may not be effective in addressing the potential harm the client's thoughts could pose to others on the unit.

3. A client with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine (Prozac). What should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective.
• B. You should take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective." SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take 4-6 weeks to reach their full effect, so clients should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because fluoxetine is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid consuming dairy products while taking fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect because clients should never stop taking antidepressants abruptly, as it can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition.

4. The RN is providing care for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen. Which approach should the RN use when changing this client's dressing?

• A. Provide detailed explanations during wound cleansing.
• B. Perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner.
• C. Ask the client non-threateningly why they cut their abdomen.
• D. Request assistance from another staff member for the dressing change.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner is crucial when caring for a client with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted injuries. This approach helps build trust, reduces feelings of shame or guilt, and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice A is incorrect because while detailed explanations may be necessary, the focus should be on the non-judgmental approach. Choice C is inappropriate as it may come across as accusatory or threatening, potentially worsening the client's emotional state. Choice D is not the best option as the RN should strive to handle the situation themselves in a supportive and empathetic manner.

5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
• B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
• C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.

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