a 45 year old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the la
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI Practice Questions

1. A 45-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation. Her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the last six months. The client has not gone to work for a month and has been terminated from her job. She has not left the house since that time. This client is displaying symptoms of which disorder?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Agoraphobia. Agoraphobia involves the fear of situations where escape might be difficult, often leading to the individual avoiding public spaces or leaving their home. In this case, the client's reluctance to leave home, not going to work, and staying indoors for an extended period align with the symptoms of agoraphobia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Claustrophobia is the fear of confined spaces, acrophobia is the fear of heights, and necrophobia is the fear of death or dead things, none of which are consistent with the client's symptoms described in the scenario.

2. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with depression who has been prescribed an SSRI. The client reports feeling more energy but is still feeling hopeless. What should the nurse be most concerned about?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned that the client may act on suicidal thoughts. An increase in energy combined with persistent feelings of hopelessness can indicate a higher risk of suicide. While impulsive behavior can be a concern, the primary worry should be the client's safety regarding suicidal ideation. Side effects of the medication are important to monitor but do not take precedence over the risk of self-harm. Serotonin syndrome is a potential concern with SSRIs, but in this scenario, the client's mental health and safety are the immediate priority.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with major depressive disorder who is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to set realistic expectations for the client. Choice A is incorrect as dizziness is a common side effect but not the most important teaching point. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-rich foods is more relevant for MAOIs. Choice D is incorrect as fluoxetine should be taken consistently, not only when the client feels depressed, to maintain therapeutic blood levels.

4. A female client refuses to take an oral hypoglycemic agent because she believes that the drug is being administered as part of an elaborate plan by the Mafia to harm her. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Reassessing the client's mental status is the most important intervention as it is crucial to address the client's delusional thinking. By assessing the client's thought processes and content, the nurse can gain insight into the client's beliefs and tailor interventions accordingly. Reassuring the client that no harm will come to her, asking the healthcare provider to give the medication, or simply explaining the importance of taking the medication may not effectively address the underlying issue of delusional beliefs.

5. A client who is diagnosed with schizophrenia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse assesses the client's mental status. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of a client with schizophrenia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Flat affect. Flat affect, which is a lack of emotional expression, is highly characteristic of schizophrenia. Mood swings (choice A) are more indicative of mood disorders rather than schizophrenia. Extreme sadness (choice B) could be seen in depression but is not as specific to schizophrenia. Manipulative behavior (choice C) is not a defining characteristic of schizophrenia; it may be seen in various psychiatric conditions but is not the most characteristic feature of schizophrenia.

Similar Questions

Which action should the nurse implement during the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship?
The wife of a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia visits 2 days after her husband's admission and states to the nurse, 'Why isn't he eating? He's still talking about his food being poisoned.' Which of the following appraisals by the LPN/LVN is most accurate?
A client with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?
A client in a long-term care facility who has multiple sclerosis is embarrassed about the need to use a wheelchair and the muscle spasms that are readily visible in her legs. Which approach is therapeutic in assisting the client to cope?
Physical examination of a 6-year-old reveals several bite marks in various locations on his body. X-ray examination reveals healed fractures of the ribs. The mother tells the nurse that her child is always having accidents. Which initial response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses