HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. A pattern of fetal late decelerations.
- B. Fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement.
- C. Absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes.
- D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.
2. In the Ballard Gestational Age Assessment Tool, the nurse determines that a 15-month-old infant has a gestational age of 42 weeks. Based on this finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Provide blow-by oxygen
- B. Provide a capillary blood glucose test
- C. Draw arterial blood gases
- D. Apply a pulse oximeter to the foot
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late preterm infants, such as those with a gestational age of 42 weeks, are at higher risk for hypoglycemia due to immature metabolic regulation. Monitoring capillary blood glucose is crucial to detect and manage hypoglycemia promptly. Providing blow-by oxygen (Choice A) is not indicated for an infant at risk for hypoglycemia. Drawing arterial blood gases (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for assessing hypoglycemia. Applying a pulse oximeter to the foot (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring blood glucose levels in this context.
3. After a mother was diagnosed with gonorrhea immediately after delivery, what is an important goal of the nurse when providing care for her baby?
- A. Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum.
- B. Lubricate the eyes.
- C. Prevent the development of infection.
- D. Teach about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum. When a mother has gonorrhea, the baby can be infected during delivery, leading to ophthalmia neonatorum, which can cause permanent blindness. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prevent this condition by treating the baby's eyes with an antibiotic prophylactically after birth. Choice B, lubricating the eyes, is not the primary goal in this situation as preventing infection takes precedence. Choice C, preventing the development of infection, is too broad and does not specifically address the potential complication of ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice D, teaching about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea, is important but not the immediate goal in this scenario where preventing ophthalmia neonatorum and potential blindness is the priority.
4. A primiparous woman presents in labor with the following labs: hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL, hematocrit 29%, hepatitis surface antigen positive, Group B Streptococcus positive, and rubella non-immune. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Transfuse 2 units of packed red blood cells.
- B. Give measles, mumps, rubella vaccine 0.5 mL.
- C. Administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously.
- D. Inject hepatitis B immune globulin 0.5 milliliters.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention in this scenario is to administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously. This is crucial to prevent Group B Streptococcus infection in the newborn during delivery. Option A, transfusing packed red blood cells, is not indicated based on the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels provided. Option B, giving measles, mumps, rubella vaccine, is not necessary at this time. Option D, injecting hepatitis B immune globulin, is not appropriate for the conditions presented in the question.
5. A client is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Polyuria
- C. Bilateral crackles
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilateral crackles. Bilateral crackles indicate respiratory complications, which can occur as an adverse effect of an epidural block with opioid analgesics. Hypotension (Choice A) is a common side effect of epidural opioids but is not typically monitored via crackles. Polyuria (Choice B) is excessive urination and is not directly associated with epidural blocks. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is high blood sugar levels and is not a typical adverse effect of epidural opioids.
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