Nursing Elites

1. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A pattern of fetal late decelerations.
• B. Fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement.
• C. Absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes.
• D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.

2. When should the low-risk patient, who is 16 weeks pregnant, be advised to return to the prenatal clinic?

• A. 1 week.
• B. 2 weeks.
• C. 3 weeks.
• D. 4 weeks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 weeks. Low-risk pregnant patients typically have prenatal visits every 4 weeks until 28 weeks of gestation. This frequency allows for adequate monitoring of the pregnancy without being overly burdensome on the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the standard prenatal care schedule for low-risk pregnancies. Visits that are too frequent may cause unnecessary anxiety for the patient, while visits that are too infrequent may miss important opportunities for monitoring and intervention.

3. A newborn who was born post-term is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. A Rh-negative mother who has an Rh-positive infant
• B. A Rh-positive mother who has an Rh-negative infant
• C. A Rh-positive mother who has an Rh-positive infant
• D. A Rh-negative mother who has an Rh-negative infant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'A Rh-negative mother who has an Rh-positive infant.' In cases where the newborn is born post-term, the mismatched Rh factor between the mother (Rh-negative) and the infant (Rh-positive) can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This condition occurs when maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells, causing hemolysis. This can result in jaundice, anemia, and other serious complications for the infant. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the mismatched Rh factor scenario that poses a risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn.

4. Which information regarding the care of antepartum women with cardiac conditions is most important for the nurse to understand?

• A. Stress on the heart is greatest in the first trimester and the last 2 weeks before labor.
• B. Women with class II cardiac disease should avoid heavy exertion and any activity that causes even minor symptoms.
• C. Women with class III cardiac disease should get 8 to 10 hours of sleep every day and limit housework, shopping, and exercise.
• D. Women with class I cardiac disease need bed rest through most of the pregnancy and face the possibility of hospitalization near term.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Class II cardiac disease is symptomatic with ordinary activity. Women in this category need to avoid heavy exertion and limit regular activities as symptoms dictate. Stress is greatest between weeks 28 and 32 of gestation, when hemodynamic changes reach their maximum. Class III cardiac disease is symptomatic with less-than-ordinary activity. These women need bed rest most of the day and face the possibility of hospitalization near term. Class I cardiac disease is asymptomatic at normal levels of activity. These women can perform limited normal activities with discretion, although they still need a good amount of sleep.

5. What is the primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth?

• A. Stimulates crying and lung expansion.
• B. Removes maternal blood from the skin surface.
• C. Reduces heat loss from evaporation.
• D. Increases blood supply to the hands and feet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth is to reduce heat loss from evaporation. This helps maintain the infant's body temperature and prevent hypothermia. Choice A (Stimulates crying and lung expansion) is incorrect because drying the infant is not primarily done to stimulate crying but rather to prevent heat loss. Choice B (Removes maternal blood from the skin surface) is incorrect as the main reason is to prevent heat loss, not to remove maternal blood. Choice D (Increases blood supply to the hands and feet) is also incorrect as drying the infant is not intended to increase blood supply but rather to regulate body temperature.

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