Nursing Elites

1. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A pattern of fetal late decelerations.
• B. Fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement.
• C. Absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes.
• D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.

2. A multiparous client at 36 hours postpartum reports increased bleeding and cramping. On examination, the nurse finds the uterine fundus 2 centimeters above the umbilicus. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the intravenous fluid to 150 ml/hr.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to void.
• D. Administer ibuprofen 800 milligrams by mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to void is the priority action in this scenario. A distended bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting properly, leading to increased bleeding and a high uterine fundus. By encouraging the client to void, the nurse can help the uterus contract effectively, reducing bleeding. Increasing intravenous fluids or administering ibuprofen would not address the immediate concern of a distended bladder affecting uterine contraction. While it may be necessary to involve the healthcare provider, addressing the bladder distention promptly is crucial to prevent further complications.

3. A client who has mild preeclampsia and will be caring for herself at home during the last 2 months of pregnancy is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I will count baby’s kicks every other day.”
• B. “I will alternate the arm used to check my blood pressure.”
• C. “I will consume 50 grams of protein daily.”
• D. ---

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alternating arms for blood pressure checks ensures more accurate readings and helps monitor preeclampsia. Option A, counting baby's kicks every other day, is not specific to managing preeclampsia. Option C, consuming 50 grams of protein daily, is important for a healthy diet during pregnancy but does not directly relate to preeclampsia management.

4. A healthcare professional is planning care for a full-term newborn who is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan of care?

• A. Dress the newborn in lightweight clothing.
• B. Avoid using lotion or ointment on the newborn's skin.
• C. Keep the newborn supine throughout treatment.
• D. Measure the newborn's temperature every 8 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a newborn is receiving phototherapy, it is important to avoid using lotions or ointments on their skin as these products can lead to skin irritation and burns under the phototherapy lights. Dressing the newborn in lightweight clothing helps ensure proper exposure to the phototherapy lights. Keeping the newborn supine during treatment helps maximize exposure to the light. However, the key consideration in this scenario is to prevent skin irritation and burns by avoiding lotions or ointments.

5. Chromosomes contain thousands of segments called:

• A. nuclei.
• B. nodes.
• C. capillaries.
• D. genes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chromosomes are structures composed of DNA and genes. Genes are the functional segments within chromosomes that encode specific traits and characteristics. The other choices ('nuclei,' 'nodes,' 'capillaries') do not accurately describe the segments found within chromosomes and are unrelated to their structure or function.

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