Nursing Elites

1. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A pattern of fetal late decelerations.
• B. Fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement.
• C. Absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes.
• D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.

2. When both alleles' effects are shown, there is said to be:

• A. codominance.
• B. preponderance.
• C. ascendance.
• D. concurrence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: codominance. Codominance refers to a genetic scenario where both alleles in a gene pair are fully expressed, leading to a phenotype that displays traits from both alleles equally. This is distinct from incomplete dominance where the traits blend. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Preponderance does not specifically relate to the expression of alleles. Ascendance and concurrence do not describe the genetic concept of codominance where both alleles are fully expressed.

3. What information should the nurse include when teaching a client at 41 weeks of gestation about a non-stress test?

• A. This test will confirm fetal lung maturity.
• B. This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.
• C. This test will detect fetal infection.
• D. This test will predict maternal readiness for labor.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.' The non-stress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring the fetal heart rate in response to its own movements. It helps determine if the fetus is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients through placental perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because confirming fetal lung maturity is typically determined through tests like amniocentesis, not the non-stress test. Choice C is incorrect because detecting fetal infection is not the primary purpose of a non-stress test. Choice D is incorrect because predicting maternal readiness for labor is not the purpose of the non-stress test; it focuses on fetal well-being.

4. A 17-year-old client gave birth 12 hours ago. She states that she doesn't know how to care for her baby. To promote parent-infant attachment behaviors, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask if she has help to care for the baby at home
• B. Provide a video on newborn safety and care
• C. Explore the basis of fears with the client
• D. Encourage rooming in while in the hospital

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging rooming in while in the hospital is the most appropriate intervention to promote parent-infant attachment behaviors. Rooming in allows the mother to stay with her baby continuously, facilitating bonding and providing the opportunity for the mother to learn how to care for her baby with the nurse's support. Asking if she has help at home (Choice A) does not directly address promoting attachment behaviors. Providing a video on newborn safety and care (Choice B) may offer information but does not actively facilitate immediate bonding. Exploring the basis of fears (Choice C) is important but may not directly address promoting attachment behaviors as effectively as encouraging rooming in.

5. Dizygotic (DZ) twins share _________ percent of their genes.

• A. 100
• B. 75
• C. 50
• D. 25

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dizygotic (DZ) twins share approximately 50% of their genes. This is because dizygotic twins, also known as fraternal twins, originate from two separate fertilized eggs and share similar genetic similarity to regular siblings. Choice A (100%) is incorrect because if twins shared 100% of their genes, they would be identical twins (monozygotic). Choice B (75%) is incorrect as it is not the typical genetic similarity seen in dizygotic twins. Choice D (25%) is incorrect as it represents a significantly lower genetic similarity than what is observed in dizygotic twins.

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