Nursing Elites

1. When discussing risk factors for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) with a group of pregnant clients, which ethnicity should the nurse identify as having the lowest incidence of GDM?

• A. Asian
• B. Non-Hispanic White American
• C. Hispanic
• D. African American

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Non-Hispanic White Americans have the lowest incidence of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) compared to other ethnicities. This is because GDM is more prevalent among certain ethnic groups, such as Asian, Hispanic, and African American populations. Asian individuals have an increased risk of developing GDM due to genetic factors, while Hispanic and African American populations have higher incidences of GDM due to lifestyle and genetic predispositions. Therefore, the correct answer is B, as Non-Hispanic White Americans generally have a lower risk of developing GDM.

2. What is the process in which the double helix of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) duplicates?

• A. Amniocentesis
• B. Mitosis
• C. Meiosis
• D. Mutation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process of cell division in which a cell duplicates its DNA and divides into two identical daughter cells. During mitosis, the DNA is replicated, and each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the genetic material. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure to collect amniotic fluid for prenatal genetic testing and is not related to DNA duplication. Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces gametes with half the genetic material of the parent cell, leading to genetic diversity. Mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that can lead to genetic variations but is not the process of DNA duplication.

3. _____ is a type of estrogen, prescribed in the 1940s and 1950s to pregnant women, that is said to have caused testicular, vaginal, and cervical cancer in some offspring.

• A. Androsterone
• B. Adiponectin
• C. Progestin
• D. Diethylstilbestrol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is a synthetic estrogen that was prescribed to pregnant women in the 1940s and 1950s to prevent miscarriages. However, it was later discovered that DES exposure in utero could lead to health issues in offspring, including an increased risk of testicular, vaginal, and cervical cancer. Choice A, Androsterone, is a steroid hormone produced in small amounts in humans and unlikely to be associated with the adverse effects described. Choice B, Adiponectin, is a protein hormone that plays a role in regulating glucose levels and fatty acid breakdown, not related to the adverse effects mentioned. Choice C, Progestin, is a synthetic form of progesterone used in birth control and hormone therapy, not linked to the specific health concerns associated with DES exposure.

4. A newborn assessment reveals spina bifida occulta. Which maternal factor should the nurse identify as having the greatest impact on the development of this newborn complication?

• A. Tobacco use.
• B. Folic acid deficiency.
• C. Short interval between pregnancies.
• D. Preeclampsia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is strongly associated with neural tube defects like spina bifida occulta. Adequate folic acid intake before and during early pregnancy significantly reduces the risk of such complications. Tobacco use (Choice A) is linked to other adverse outcomes but not specifically spina bifida occulta. Short intervals between pregnancies (Choice C) can increase the risk of preterm birth and low birth weight but are not directly linked to spina bifida occulta. Preeclampsia (Choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that poses risks to both the mother and baby but is not the primary factor contributing to spina bifida occulta development.

5. The nurse is caring for a multiparous client who is 8 centimeters dilated, 100% effaced, and the fetal head is at 0 station. The client is shivering and states extreme discomfort with the urge to bear down. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer IV pain medication
• B. Perform a vaginal exam
• C. Reposition to side-lying
• D. Encourage pushing with each contraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Repositioning the client to a side-lying position is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. This position can help relieve pressure on the cervix and reduce the urge to push prematurely, allowing the cervix to continue dilating. Administering IV pain medication may not address the underlying cause of the discomfort, and pushing prematurely can lead to cervical trauma. Performing a vaginal exam is not necessary at this point as the client is already 8 centimeters dilated, and the fetal head is at 0 station.

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