HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. What is the process in which the double helix of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) duplicates?
- A. Amniocentesis
- B. Mitosis
- C. Meiosis
- D. Mutation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process of cell division in which a cell duplicates its DNA and divides into two identical daughter cells. During mitosis, the DNA is replicated, and each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the genetic material. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure to collect amniotic fluid for prenatal genetic testing and is not related to DNA duplication. Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces gametes with half the genetic material of the parent cell, leading to genetic diversity. Mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that can lead to genetic variations but is not the process of DNA duplication.
2. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Pain level of 8/10
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F
- D. Saturated abdominal dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention. This finding suggests a potential surgical site issue that needs urgent attention to prevent further complications. Absent bowel sounds, pain level, and a slightly elevated temperature are common post-operative findings that may not necessarily require immediate intervention compared to a saturated abdominal dressing. Absent bowel sounds can be common after surgery due to anesthesia but may resolve with time. Pain and slightly elevated temperature are expected post-operative findings that can be managed with appropriate pain relief and monitoring. However, a saturated abdominal dressing indicates a potential ongoing issue at the surgical site that needs prompt assessment and intervention to prevent complications.
3. Which of the following is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age?
- A. Tay-Sachs disease
- B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
- C. Hemophilia
- D. Huntington’s disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Huntington's disease is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder characterized by progressive nerve cell degeneration in the brain. It typically manifests in middle age with symptoms such as involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the nervous system in early childhood, not middle age. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Choice B) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects muscle function and usually presents in early childhood. Hemophilia (Choice C) is a genetic disorder related to blood clotting, and its onset is not typically in middle age.
4. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?
- A. Prolonged use does not typically cause dark concentrated urine.
- B. It is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
- C. Avoid taking the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
- D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause drug-induced hepatitis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
5. When developing the plan of care for a child with burns requiring fluid replacement therapy, what information would the nurse expect to include?
- A. Administration of colloid initially followed by a crystalloid
- B. Determination of fluid replacement based on the type of burn
- C. Administration of most of the volume during the first 8 hours
- D. Monitoring of hourly urine output to achieve less than 1 mL/kg/hr
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In fluid replacement therapy for burns, the majority of the volume should be administered within the first 8 hours to prevent shock and maintain perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because crystalloids are typically administered first in fluid resuscitation for burns. Choice B is incorrect as fluid replacement in burn patients is primarily determined by the extent of the burn injury rather than the type of burn. Choice D is incorrect as the goal for hourly urine output in burn patients is generally higher, aiming for 1-2 mL/kg/hr in children to ensure adequate renal perfusion and prevent dehydration.