Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth?

• A. Stimulates crying and lung expansion.
• B. Removes maternal blood from the skin surface.
• C. Reduces heat loss from evaporation.
• D. Increases blood supply to the hands and feet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary rationale for thoroughly drying the infant immediately after birth is to reduce heat loss from evaporation. This helps maintain the infant's body temperature and prevent hypothermia. Choice A (Stimulates crying and lung expansion) is incorrect because drying the infant is not primarily done to stimulate crying but rather to prevent heat loss. Choice B (Removes maternal blood from the skin surface) is incorrect as the main reason is to prevent heat loss, not to remove maternal blood. Choice D (Increases blood supply to the hands and feet) is also incorrect as drying the infant is not intended to increase blood supply but rather to regulate body temperature.

2. A client is experiencing sore nipples from breastfeeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place a snug dressing on the client’s nipple when not breastfeeding
• B. Ensure the newborn’s mouth is wide open before latching to the breast
• C. Encourage the client to limit the newborn’s feeding to 10 minutes on each breast
• D. Instruct the client to begin the feeding with the nipple that is most tender

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ensuring the newborn's mouth is wide open before latching is crucial for achieving a proper latch, which can help reduce nipple soreness. Placing a snug dressing on the nipple when not breastfeeding (choice A) can lead to further irritation and hinder healing. Encouraging the client to limit the newborn’s feeding to 10 minutes on each breast (choice C) may not be adequate for effective feeding as infants should feed until they are satisfied. Instructing the client to begin feeding with the most tender nipple (choice D) can worsen the soreness as it may not allow the baby to feed effectively.

3. Before meiosis, a sperm cell:

• A. contains 46 chromosomes.
• B. contains two X chromosomes.
• C. is significantly larger than an egg cell.
• D. contains both an X and a Y chromosome.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before meiosis, a sperm cell contains 46 chromosomes. This is because sperm cells, like other somatic cells, have a diploid number of chromosomes. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved to 23 to combine with an egg cell during fertilization. Choice B is incorrect because a sperm cell carries either an X or a Y chromosome, not both (Choice D). Choice C is incorrect as sperm cells are generally smaller than egg cells, which is an adaptation that aids in motility and penetration of the egg during fertilization.

4. A client is experiencing preterm labor and has a prescription for 4 doses of dexamethasone 6 mg IM every 12 hours. The available concentration is dexamethasone 10 mg/mL. How many mL of dexamethasone should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use trailing zero.)

• A. 0.6 mL
• B. ---
• C. ---
• D. ---

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calculation: (6 mg/dose) / (10 mg/mL) = 0.6 mL per dose. The correct answer is 0.6 mL. This calculation is obtained by dividing the dose needed (6 mg) by the concentration available (10 mg/mL). The resulting value is 0.6 mL per dose. Choices B, C, and D are not applicable as the correct answer has been calculated accurately.

5. What is the typical sex chromosome pattern for females?

• A. XX
• B. XYY
• C. XY
• D. XXY

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The typical sex chromosome pattern for females is XX. Females have two X chromosomes, which is represented as XX. Choice B (XYY) is incorrect as it represents the sex chromosome pattern for males with an extra Y chromosome. Choice C (XY) is the sex chromosome pattern for males. Choice D (XXY) represents a genetic disorder known as Klinefelter syndrome, where males have an extra X chromosome.

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