HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. _____ is a life-threatening disease, characterized by high blood pressure that may afflict women late in the second or early in the third trimester.
- A. Rubella
- B. Syphilis
- C. Preeclampsia
- D. Phenylketonuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Preeclampsia is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure that typically occurs in the second half of pregnancy. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby. Rubella (choice A) is a viral infection that can harm the developing fetus but is not directly related to high blood pressure in pregnancy. Syphilis (choice B) is a sexually transmitted infection that can affect pregnancy but does not specifically cause high blood pressure. Phenylketonuria (choice D) is a genetic disorder that affects metabolism and is not associated with high blood pressure in pregnancy.
2. Which nursing activity is within the scope of practice for the practical nurse?
- A. Complete an admission assessment in the normal newborn nursery
- B. Discontinue a central venous catheter that has become dislodged
- C. Observe a client rotate the subcutaneous site for an insulin pump
- D. Monitor a continuous narcotic epidural for a postoperative client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Observe a client rotate the subcutaneous site for an insulin pump.' This activity is within the scope of practice for a practical nurse as it involves observing and ensuring proper technique for using an insulin pump, which aligns with their training and responsibilities. Choices A, B, and D are beyond the typical scope of practice for a practical nurse. Completing an admission assessment for a newborn nursery is usually performed by a registered nurse. Discontinuing a dislodged central venous catheter and monitoring a narcotic epidural require advanced skills and knowledge, usually carried out by registered nurses or advanced practice nurses.
3. A healthy 68-year-old client asks the practical nurse (PN) whether they should take the pneumococcal vaccine. Which statement should the PN offer to the client that provides the most accurate information about this vaccine?
- A. The vaccine is given annually before the flu season to those older than 50 years.
- B. The immunization is recommended for children younger than 2 years old and all adults 65 years or older.
- C. The vaccine is for all ages and is given primarily to those traveling overseas to areas of infection.
- D. The vaccine will prevent the occurrence of pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is usually recommended that children younger than 2 years old and adults 65 years or older get vaccinated against pneumococcal disease. This is because these age groups are more susceptible to severe complications from the infection. While the vaccine may be recommended for certain individuals with specific medical conditions at any age, the primary target groups are as mentioned in option B. Option A is incorrect as the pneumococcal vaccine is not given annually like the flu vaccine. Option C is incorrect because the vaccine is not primarily for travelers but for certain age groups and individuals with medical conditions at risk. Option D is incorrect as the vaccine's duration of protection can vary, and it is not guaranteed to prevent pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.
4. A client in a provider’s office tells the nurse that, 'I fast for several days each week to help control my weight.' The client takes several medications for various chronic issues. The nurse should explain to the client that which of the following mechanisms that result from fasting puts her at risk for medication toxicity?
- A. Increasing the metabolism of the medications over time
- B. Increasing the protein-binding response
- C. Increasing medications’ transit time through the intestines
- D. Decreasing the excretion of medications
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fasting can lead to an increased protein-binding response of medications. This can result in a higher concentration of bound medications in the bloodstream, potentially causing toxicity as the medications may not be readily available for metabolism or excretion. Choice A is incorrect because fasting typically doesn't increase medication metabolism. Choice C is incorrect as fasting usually decreases transit time through the intestines. Choice D is incorrect since fasting generally does not decrease medication excretion.
5. If a group of people consumes an amount of protein equal to the estimated average requirement for their population group, what percentage of people will receive insufficient amounts?
- A. 10
- B. 25
- C. 33
- D. 50
Correct answer: D
Rationale: If a group consumes an amount of protein equal to the estimated average requirement, 50% of the people will receive insufficient amounts. The estimated average requirement is the amount of a nutrient that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group. Therefore, 50% of the group will not be meeting their individual needs if they are consuming only the average requirement. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because at the estimated average requirement level, a higher percentage than those values will receive insufficient amounts.