Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements is true about Tay-Sachs disease?

• A. It is most commonly found among children in Jewish families of Eastern European background.
• B. Children who have this disease suffer from excessive production of mucus in the lungs and pancreas.
• C. It is most commonly found among children in Asian American families.
• D. Children who have this disease suffer from muscular dystrophy characterized by a weakening of the muscles.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tay-Sachs disease is most commonly found among Jewish families of Eastern European descent. It is a fatal genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. Choice B is incorrect because Tay-Sachs disease does not involve excessive mucus production in the lungs and pancreas. Choice C is incorrect as it states that Tay-Sachs disease is most commonly found among Asian American families, which is inaccurate. Choice D is also incorrect because Tay-Sachs disease does not cause muscular dystrophy characterized by weakening of the muscles.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes 10 units per liter of oxytocin via IV drip to augment a client's labor because she is experiencing a prolonged active phase. Which finding would cause the nurse to immediately discontinue the oxytocin?

• A. Contraction duration of 100 seconds.
• B. Four contractions in 10 minutes.
• C. Uterus is soft.
• D. Early deceleration of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds is too long and can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and other complications. This prolonged contraction duration suggests that the uterus is not relaxing adequately between contractions, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Choice B, 'Four contractions in 10 minutes,' is a sign of tachysystole, which is concerning but not as immediately critical as the prolonged contraction duration. Choice C, 'Uterus is soft,' is not a reason to discontinue oxytocin; in fact, it is a normal finding. Choice D, 'Early deceleration of fetal heart rate,' while indicating fetal distress, is not a direct result of the oxytocin and may require intervention but not immediate discontinuation of the medication.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Minimal arm recoil
• B. Popliteal angle of less than 90°
• C. Creases over the entire sole
• D. Sparse lanugo

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation, healthcare providers should expect minimal arm recoil. This finding is common in preterm infants due to lower muscle tone. Choice B, a popliteal angle of less than 90°, is incorrect for this age group. Creases over the entire sole (Choice C) typically develop at term age, not at 32 weeks of gestation. Sparse lanugo (Choice D) is a normal finding in preterm infants but is not specific to those at 32 weeks of gestation.

4. Daisy was always unusually short for her age. She was unable to conceive a child after marriage, and upon visiting a doctor, she was prescribed estrogen replacement therapy. Daisy is most likely suffering from:

• A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
• B. Cystic fibrosis.
• C. Turner syndrome.
• D. Huntington’s disease (HD).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Daisy's symptoms of short stature and infertility, along with the prescription of estrogen replacement therapy, are indicative of Turner syndrome. Turner syndrome is a genetic condition in which a female is partially or completely missing one X chromosome. This results in short stature, infertility, and other physical characteristics. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder caused by a mutation in the gene responsible for the breakdown of the amino acid phenylalanine. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder affecting the respiratory and digestive systems. Huntington's disease (HD) is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects muscle coordination and leads to cognitive decline.

5. Which of the following statements is true of sickle-cell anemia?

• A. It is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications.
• B. It is caused by a mutation in the beta-globin gene.
• C. It leads to the obstruction of small blood vessels and decreased oxygen delivery.
• D. It is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sickle-cell anemia results from a mutation in the beta-globin gene, causing red blood cells to become sickle-shaped. These misshapen cells can obstruct small blood vessels, leading to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications, hydration, and in severe cases, blood transfusions. It is caused by a specific mutation in the beta-globin gene, not by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Additionally, sickle-cell anemia is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent, not exclusive to any specific gender.

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