HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Test Bank
1. After a mother was diagnosed with gonorrhea immediately after delivery, what is an important goal of the nurse when providing care for her baby?
- A. Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum.
- B. Lubricate the eyes.
- C. Prevent the development of infection.
- D. Teach about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent the development of ophthalmia neonatorum. When a mother has gonorrhea, the baby can be infected during delivery, leading to ophthalmia neonatorum, which can cause permanent blindness. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prevent this condition by treating the baby's eyes with an antibiotic prophylactically after birth. Choice B, lubricating the eyes, is not the primary goal in this situation as preventing infection takes precedence. Choice C, preventing the development of infection, is too broad and does not specifically address the potential complication of ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice D, teaching about the risks of breastfeeding with gonorrhea, is important but not the immediate goal in this scenario where preventing ophthalmia neonatorum and potential blindness is the priority.
2. Which of the following processes happen during mitosis?
- A. Strands of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) break apart.
- B. Adenine combines with its appropriate partner, cytosine.
- C. Sperm and ova cells are created.
- D. Twenty-three chromosomes are created.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct process that happens during mitosis is the breaking apart, replication, and division of DNA strands into two new cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. Choice B is incorrect because it describes base pairing in DNA, not a process specific to mitosis. Choice C is incorrect as the creation of sperm and ova cells is related to meiosis, not mitosis. Choice D is incorrect because chromosomes are not created during mitosis; they are replicated and divided equally between the daughter cells.
3. A healthcare provider is teaching a prenatal class about immunizations that newborns receive following birth. Which of the following immunizations should the provider include in the teaching?
- A. Hepatitis B
- B. Rotavirus
- C. Pneumococcal
- D. Varicella
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Hepatitis B. Newborns receive the Hepatitis B vaccine shortly after birth to provide protection against the virus. Rotavirus, Pneumococcal, and Varicella vaccines are typically administered at later stages of infancy or childhood, not immediately after birth. Rotavirus vaccine helps prevent severe diarrhea, Pneumococcal vaccine protects against infections like pneumonia and meningitis, and Varicella vaccine prevents chickenpox. However, these vaccines are not part of the routine immunizations given to newborns immediately after birth.
4. When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems, the nurse must be alert for the signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation. Which critical findings would the nurse find on assessment of the client experiencing this condition?
- A. Regular heart rate and hypertension.
- B. Increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough.
- C. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension.
- D. Dyspnea, crackles, and an irregular, weak pulse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In pregnant women with cardiac problems, signs of cardiac decompensation include dyspnea, crackles, an irregular, weak, and rapid pulse, rapid respirations, a moist and frequent cough, generalized edema, increasing fatigue, and cyanosis of the lips and nailbeds. Choice A is incorrect as a regular heart rate and hypertension are not typically associated with cardiac decompensation. Choice B is incorrect as increased urinary output and dry cough are not indicative of cardiac decompensation, only tachycardia is. Choice C is incorrect as bradycardia and hypertension are not typically seen in cardiac decompensation; dyspnea is a critical sign instead.
5. A client who is 24 weeks gestation arrives at the clinic reporting swollen hands. On examination, the nurse notes the client has had a rapid weight gain over six weeks. Which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Review the client's previous blood pressures in the chart.
- B. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
- C. Observe and time the client's contractions.
- D. Examine the client for pedal edema.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Swollen hands and rapid weight gain could be signs of preeclampsia, so the next step is to check the client's blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure is a key indicator in assessing for preeclampsia in pregnancy. Reviewing the client's previous blood pressures may provide additional context but obtaining the current blood pressure is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing and timing contractions are not relevant in this scenario as the client is not presenting with signs of active labor. Examining for pedal edema is important in assessing for fluid retention, but obtaining the blood pressure takes precedence in this case due to the potential seriousness of preeclampsia.
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