Nursing Elites

1. After surgery to correct hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) in a 3-week-old infant who had been formula-fed, which postoperative feeding order is appropriate?

• A. Thickened formula 24 hours after surgery
• B. Withholding feedings for the first 24 hours
• C. Regular formula feeding within 24 hours after surgery
• D. Additional glucose feedings as desired after the first 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), it is appropriate to resume regular formula feeding within 24 hours postoperatively to promote recovery. Choice A, thickened formula after surgery, may be too heavy for the infant's digestive system at this early stage. Withholding feedings for the first 24 hours (Choice B) is not recommended as early feeding helps with recovery. Additional glucose feedings (Choice D) are not necessary and may not provide the balanced nutrition required after surgery.

2. Why should the nurse closely monitor the IV flow rate for a 5-month-old infant with severe diarrhea receiving IV fluids?

• A. Limiting output
• B. Replacing lost fluids
• C. Avoiding IV infiltration
• D. Preventing cardiac overload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Preventing cardiac overload. Infants are highly vulnerable to fluid overload, making it essential to carefully monitor IV flow rates to prevent complications such as cardiac overload. Rapid administration of IV fluids can lead to an excessive increase in circulating volume, potentially causing cardiac strain or heart failure in infants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Monitoring the IV flow rate is not primarily aimed at limiting output, replacing lost fluids, or avoiding IV infiltration in this scenario. The key concern is to prevent the risk of cardiac overload due to the infant's susceptibility to fluid imbalances.

3. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Full-thickness burns involve the destruction of all layers of skin, extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn causes severe damage and loss of sensation due to nerve destruction. Choice A, erythema and pain, describes superficial burns (first-degree). Choice B, skin showing erythema followed by blister formation, describes partial-thickness burns (second-degree). Choice D, destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone, goes beyond the description of full-thickness burns.

4. A child with a diagnosis of appendicitis is scheduled for surgery. What preoperative intervention is important for the nurse to perform?

• A. Administering antibiotics
• B. Maintaining strict NPO status
• C. Encouraging fluid intake
• D. Monitoring for signs of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct preoperative intervention for a child with appendicitis scheduled for surgery is maintaining strict NPO (nothing by mouth) status. This is crucial to reduce the risk of aspiration during anesthesia induction and prevent potential complications during surgery. Administering antibiotics may be a part of the treatment plan but is not a preoperative intervention. Encouraging fluid intake is contraindicated preoperatively to avoid delays in surgery and complications related to anesthesia. Monitoring for signs of infection is important postoperatively to assess for any complications that may arise due to the surgical procedure.

5. A 3-year-old child with a history of frequent respiratory infections is being evaluated for cystic fibrosis. What diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate will be ordered?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Sweat chloride test
• C. Pulmonary function test
• D. Sputum culture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the sweat chloride test. This test is crucial in diagnosing cystic fibrosis as it measures the amount of chloride in sweat, which is typically elevated in individuals with cystic fibrosis. A chest X-ray (Choice A) may show characteristic findings like hyperinflation or bronchiectasis, but it is not a definitive diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis. Pulmonary function tests (Choice C) may help assess lung function but are not specific for cystic fibrosis. Sputum culture (Choice D) may be used to identify specific pathogens causing respiratory infections but is not a primary diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis.

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