Nursing Elites

1. A 3-year-old child has a sudden onset of respiratory distress. The mother denies any recent illnesses or fever. You should suspect:

• A. croup.
• B. foreign body airway obstruction.
• C. lower respiratory infection.
• D. epiglottitis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a 3-year-old child with a sudden onset of respiratory distress and no recent illnesses or fever, the likely cause is a foreign body airway obstruction. Foreign body obstruction can lead to sudden respiratory distress without other preceding symptoms. It is crucial to consider this possibility and act promptly to clear the airway in such cases to prevent serious complications.

2. A 3-year-old female has had severe diarrhea and vomiting for 4 days. She is now unresponsive with rapid, shallow respirations and thready radial pulses. Her heart rate is 160 beats/min, and her oxygen saturation is 88%. You should:

• A. Ventilate her with a bag-valve mask.
• B. Start chest compressions.
• C. Administer high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask.
• D. Place her in the recovery position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a pediatric patient presenting with unresponsiveness, rapid, shallow respirations, thready pulses, high heart rate, and low oxygen saturation, the priority is to ensure adequate oxygenation. Ventilating the child with a bag-valve mask is crucial in this scenario to support her breathing and improve oxygenation, as indicated by her low oxygen saturation and respiratory distress. Starting chest compressions is not indicated as the child has a pulse. Administering high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreathing mask may not be as effective as providing positive pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask in this situation. Placing her in the recovery position is not appropriate when the child is unresponsive and in respiratory distress.

3. Which pain assessment tool is most appropriate for a 3-month-old hospitalized with a fractured femur?

• A. FLACC scale
• B. Poker chip tool
• C. Number scale
• D. Visual analog scale

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The FLACC scale, which stands for Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability, is specifically designed for nonverbal patients like infants and young children. It assesses pain based on observable behaviors such as facial expressions, leg movement, activity level, cry, and the ability to be consoled. In this case, a 3-month-old infant who is unable to communicate verbally would best be assessed using the FLACC scale to determine the level of pain experienced due to a fractured femur. The Poker chip tool, Number scale, and Visual analog scale are not suitable for nonverbal infants and young children as they rely on self-reporting or cognitive abilities that are not yet developed at this age.

4. During the pediatric assessment process, which scenario would be the LEAST appropriate for the transition phase?

• A. A parent is available to help keep the child calm.
• B. The child is unstable and needs rapid transport.
• C. You determine that the child's condition is stable.
• D. Your transport time is greater than 30 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a pediatric assessment, the transition phase is a critical period where care is handed over from prehospital providers to the hospital team. If the child is unstable and requires rapid transport, it is not appropriate to delay for a transition phase. In such cases, immediate transport to a higher level of care is paramount to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Choice A is appropriate as having a parent present can help keep the child calm during the transition. Choice C is also appropriate as transitioning a stable child allows for a smoother handover. Choice D, while indicating a longer transport time, does not necessarily affect the need for a transition phase as long as the child's condition remains stable.

5. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?

• A. Blood will shunt left to right, causing increased pulmonary flow and no cyanosis.
• B. Blood will shunt right to left, causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis.
• C. No shunting occurs due to high pressure in the left ventricle.
• D. Increased pressure in the left atrium hinders the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

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