HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. You have a patient who has just had a diagnostic arthroscopy. You are instructing him about what to do when he gets home. Which of the following would you NOT instruct him to do?
- A. Resume normal activities within 12 hours so as to help reduce the swelling
- B. Elevate the extremity for 24 – 48 hours
- C. Apply ice to the area involved intermittently
- D. Report severe pain to the physician immediately
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Patients should rest and avoid normal activities for a short period after arthroscopy to allow healing and prevent swelling, which could worsen with early activity. Elevation and icing are recommended post-procedure to reduce swelling and pain. Instructing the patient to resume normal activities within 12 hours could lead to increased swelling and delayed healing. Reporting severe pain is crucial as it could indicate a complication. Therefore, the correct instruction is not to resume normal activities immediately after arthroscopy.
2. Which of the following is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
- A. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine
- B. Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees
- C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
- D. Changing the ventilator circuit daily
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) because it helps reduce the risk of aspiration, which is a significant factor in the development of VAP. Elevating the head of the bed enhances pulmonary hygiene, decreases the risk of microaspiration, and promotes better lung function. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine is essential for oral hygiene but is not specifically aimed at preventing VAP. Administering prophylactic antibiotics without a clear indication can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not a recommended routine practice to prevent VAP. Changing the ventilator circuit daily is essential for infection control but is not the most critical step in preventing VAP.
3. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.
4. Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?
- A. Administering insulin
- B. Providing a complex carbohydrate meal
- C. Giving 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, like glucose tablets
- D. Encouraging the patient to exercise
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Giving 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets, is the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. This rapid-acting carbohydrate helps quickly raise blood sugar levels, providing immediate relief to the patient. Administering insulin (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar levels, exacerbating the hypoglycemia. Providing a complex carbohydrate meal (Choice B) would not act quickly enough to address the immediate low blood sugar issue. Encouraging the patient to exercise (Choice D) is inappropriate during hypoglycemia as it can further deplete glucose levels.
5. What is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability?
- A. Down syndrome
- B. Fragile X syndrome
- C. Prader-Willi syndrome
- D. Turner syndrome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Fragile X syndrome because it is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, resulting from a mutation in the FMR1 gene. Down syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Turner syndrome are not the most common genetic causes of intellectual disability. Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, Prader-Willi syndrome results from specific genetic abnormalities on chromosome 15, and Turner syndrome is characterized by the absence of part or all of one of the X chromosomes.
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