HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. What is the function of the epiglottis during swallowing?
- A. Prevents food from entering the trachea
- B. Aids in food propulsion
- C. Enhances taste sensation
- D. Lubricates the esophagus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that closes over the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquids from entering the airway. Choice A is correct because the primary function of the epiglottis is to act as a lid over the trachea, ensuring that food goes down the esophagus and not into the windpipe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the specific role of the epiglottis during swallowing.
2. The PN notes that a UAP is ambulating a male client who had a stroke and has right-sided weakness. The UAP is walking on the client's left side. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Instruct the UAP to walk on the client's affected side
- B. Take over the ambulation and provide guidance to the UAP immediately
- C. Provide the client with an assistive device, such as a cane or walker
- D. Tell the UAP to take the client back to his room
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the PN to take is to instruct the UAP to walk on the client’s affected side. This is essential to provide the necessary support and prevent falls, especially when the client has weakness on one side due to a stroke. Walking on the affected side helps provide stability and assistance to the weaker side. Choice B is incorrect because it would be more appropriate for the PN to provide immediate guidance and correct the UAP's positioning rather than taking over the task completely. Choice C is incorrect because while assistive devices may be beneficial, the immediate concern is the UAP's positioning during ambulation, not providing the client with an assistive device. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication to return the client to his room unless it is necessary for his safety or well-being.
3. An adult client is undergoing weekly external radiation treatments for breast cancer and reports increasing fatigue. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately
- B. Offer to reschedule the treatment for the following week
- C. Plan to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes
- D. Reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client undergoing radiation treatment for breast cancer reports increasing fatigue is to reinforce the need for extra rest periods and plenty of sleep. Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy, and adequate rest and sleep can help manage this symptom. Notifying the healthcare provider or charge nurse immediately (choice A) is not necessary for increasing fatigue, as it is expected during radiation therapy. Offering to reschedule the treatment for the following week (choice B) is not the best initial action for managing fatigue. Planning to monitor the client's vital signs every 30 minutes (choice C) is unnecessary and not directly related to managing fatigue caused by radiation therapy.
4. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:
- A. Is experiencing an exacerbation of goiter
- B. Is experiencing an acute asthmatic attack
- C. Has aspirated a piece of meat
- D. Has severe laryngotracheitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
5. During a routine prenatal visit at the antepartal clinic, a multipara at 35-weeks gestation presents with 2+ edema of the ankles and feet. Which additional information should the PN report to the RN?
- A. Due date
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Gravida and parity
- D. Fundal height
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Blood pressure is the most critical information to report to the RN in this scenario. The presence of edema, along with high blood pressure, can be indicative of preeclampsia, a severe condition in pregnancy. Monitoring blood pressure is essential for assessing the patient's condition and taking appropriate actions if necessary. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent in this situation. The due date, gravida, and parity are important for overall assessment but do not address the immediate concern of potential preeclampsia. Fundal height is used to assess fetal growth and position but is not the priority when edema and high blood pressure are present.
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