HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. What is the function of the epiglottis during swallowing?
- A. Prevents food from entering the trachea
- B. Aids in food propulsion
- C. Enhances taste sensation
- D. Lubricates the esophagus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that closes over the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquids from entering the airway. Choice A is correct because the primary function of the epiglottis is to act as a lid over the trachea, ensuring that food goes down the esophagus and not into the windpipe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the specific role of the epiglottis during swallowing.
2. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. It helps ensure that the heparin levels are within the desired range to prevent either clotting or excessive bleeding. Platelet count (A) is important but does not directly assess heparin's therapeutic effect. Prothrombin time (PT) (B) and International normalized ratio (INR) (D) are used to monitor patients on warfarin, not heparin therapy.
3. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:
- A. Is experiencing an exacerbation of goiter
- B. Is experiencing an acute asthmatic attack
- C. Has aspirated a piece of meat
- D. Has severe laryngotracheitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
4. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. Down syndrome
- D. Sickle cell anemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.
5. What is the first action a healthcare professional should take when a patient’s nasogastric (NG) tube becomes clogged?
- A. Flush the tube with water
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Attempt to aspirate the clog with a syringe
- D. Administer a medication to dissolve the clog
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient's nasogastric (NG) tube becomes clogged, the first action to take is to attempt to aspirate the clog with a syringe. This is a standard and initial step to clear the blockage in the tube. Flushing the tube with water (Choice A) may not address the specific clog; repositioning the patient (Choice B) is not directly related to clearing the tube. Administering a medication to dissolve the clog (Choice D) should only be considered after simpler methods like aspiration have been attempted.
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