Nursing Elites

1. A client is complaining of a tingling sensation in the fingers, nose tip, and earlobes 24 hours after a total thyroidectomy. Which measure should the PN implement first?

• A. Apply sequential compression devices bilaterally
• B. Initiate prescribed L-thyroxine replacement therapy
• C. Obtain prescribed calcium gluconate for tetany
• D. Prepare for emergency tracheotomy at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obtain prescribed calcium gluconate for tetany. Tingling sensations post-thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia, a potential complication that requires prompt treatment with calcium gluconate to prevent tetany. Initiating L-thyroxine replacement therapy (choice B) is important but not the first priority in this situation. Applying sequential compression devices (choice A) is not indicated for tingling sensations and does not address the potential complication of hypocalcemia. Preparing for an emergency tracheotomy (choice D) is not warranted based on the client's symptoms of tingling sensations.

2. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the PN observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the PN take?

• A. Loosen the fistula dressing
• B. Report the presence of a bounding pulse
• C. Document that the fistula is intact
• D. Apply gentle pressure over the site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A palpable buzzing sensation, known as a thrill, over an AV fistula indicates proper functioning. The correct action for the PN is to document that the fistula is intact. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to loosen the fistula dressing when the thrill is felt. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not related to the observed buzzing sensation. Choice D is incorrect because applying pressure is unnecessary when a thrill is present, indicating proper AV fistula function.

3. The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are providing care for a client who exhibits signs of neglect syndrome following a stroke affecting the right hemisphere. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side
• B. Ask the UAP to leave the room and assess the client's body for bruising
• C. Carefully observe the interaction between the client and family members
• D. Instruct the UAP to protect the client's left side when transferring to a chair

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side. Approaching the client from the neglected side (left side) can help in retraining the brain and improving awareness of the affected side, which is crucial in the management of neglect syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as assessing the client's body for bruising is not directly related to managing neglect syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as observing the interaction between the client and family members does not address the specific intervention needed for neglect syndrome. Choice D is incorrect because protecting the client's left side when transferring to a chair does not actively involve retraining the brain and improving awareness of the neglected side, which is the primary goal in managing neglect syndrome.

4. An older client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The PN notes that in the evening this client often becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

• A. Ask family members to remain with the client in the evenings from 5 to 8 pm
• B. Administer a prescribed PRN benzodiazepine at the onset of a confused state
• C. Ensure that the client is assigned to a room close to the nurses' station
• D. Postpone administration of nighttime medications until after 11 pm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sundowning, a phenomenon where dementia symptoms worsen in the evening, can be managed by ensuring the client is close to the nurses' station for frequent monitoring and quick intervention, if necessary. This reduces the risk of harm and helps manage agitation. Asking family members to remain with the client may not always be feasible and does not address the need for close monitoring. Administering benzodiazepines should not be the first-line intervention for sundowning as it can increase the risk of falls and other adverse effects. Postponing medication administration may disrupt the client's routine and potentially worsen symptoms.

5. A post-operative client is prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) while on bed rest. What is the primary purpose of this device?

• A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
• B. To improve circulation in the legs.
• C. To prevent pressure ulcers.
• D. To alleviate post-operative pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).' Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are primarily used to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by promoting blood flow in the legs and reducing venous stasis, which is a common risk for post-operative clients who are on bed rest. While SCDs do improve circulation in the legs indirectly, their primary purpose is DVT prevention. Preventing pressure ulcers is typically achieved through repositioning and support surfaces, not with SCDs, making choice C incorrect. SCDs are not used to alleviate post-operative pain, so choice D is also incorrect.

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