HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. A client has a prescription for a Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a Lumbar Laminectomy. What information should the nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?
- A. Mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain
- B. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus
- C. An infusion of medication in the spinal canal will block pain perception
- D. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus on the pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. TENS units work by delivering small electrical impulses through the skin. These impulses are thought to close the 'gates of nerve conduction,' which can help in managing severe pain. Choice B is incorrect because the dulled pain perception does not occur in the cerebral cortex by the TENS unit. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication in the spinal canal. Choice D is incorrect because TENS does not work by distracting the client's focus on pain, but rather by altering pain perception through electrical impulses.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with an intravenous infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Slow the rate of infusion
- B. Apply a warm compress to the site
- C. Discontinue the IV infusion
- D. Elevate the affected arm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion (Choice C). Pain and swelling at the IV site can indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which are serious complications that require immediate action. Slowing the rate of infusion (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue and can potentially worsen the condition. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevating the affected arm (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; discontinuing the infusion takes precedence to prevent further harm.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Bilateral leg swelling.
- B. Sudden onset of chest pain.
- C. Gradual onset of dyspnea.
- D. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gradual onset of dyspnea.' While pulmonary embolism can present with various symptoms, the most common include sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain (often pleuritic in nature), tachypnea, and tachycardia. Bilateral leg swelling is more commonly associated with conditions like deep vein thrombosis, not pulmonary embolism. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation may be seen in conditions like pneumothorax, not typically in pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the gradual onset of dyspnea is the most indicative symptom of pulmonary embolism in this scenario.
4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
- C. Expect to feel better immediately.
- D. Avoid foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.
5. A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
- B. Provide a complex carbohydrate snack.
- C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously.
- D. Give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.
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