HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. A client has a prescription for a Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a Lumbar Laminectomy. What information should the nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?
- A. Mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain
- B. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus
- C. An infusion of medication in the spinal canal will block pain perception
- D. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus on the pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. TENS units work by delivering small electrical impulses through the skin. These impulses are thought to close the 'gates of nerve conduction,' which can help in managing severe pain. Choice B is incorrect because the dulled pain perception does not occur in the cerebral cortex by the TENS unit. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication in the spinal canal. Choice D is incorrect because TENS does not work by distracting the client's focus on pain, but rather by altering pain perception through electrical impulses.
2. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted to the hospital for a suspected myocardial infarction. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer oxygen as prescribed
- B. Perform an ECG
- C. Obtain a detailed health history
- D. Monitor vital signs regularly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority nursing action in this scenario is to perform an ECG. An ECG is crucial in confirming myocardial infarction promptly and guiding immediate treatment decisions. Administering oxygen as prescribed is important but not the priority over confirming the diagnosis. Obtaining a detailed health history is relevant but does not take precedence over immediate diagnostic confirmation. While monitoring vital signs regularly is essential, performing an ECG is the priority action in this scenario to guide timely management.
3. A client with a severe peanut allergy accidentally ingested peanut-containing food and is experiencing anaphylaxis. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer an epinephrine injection
- B. Call for immediate medical help
- C. Monitor airway, breathing, and circulation
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for a client experiencing anaphylaxis due to a severe peanut allergy is to administer an epinephrine injection. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it can rapidly reverse the severe allergic reaction. While calling for immediate medical help is important, administering epinephrine takes precedence because it can be life-saving in this situation. Monitoring airway, breathing, and circulation is essential in managing anaphylaxis, but administering epinephrine is the priority action to halt the progression of the allergic reaction and stabilize the client's condition. Therefore, 'Administer an epinephrine injection' is the most critical initial intervention.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). What technique should the nurse emphasize?
- A. The importance of using a spacer
- B. How to synchronize breaths with inhaler activation
- C. Regular cleaning of the inhaler
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In managing COPD with a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), the nurse should emphasize all of the techniques mentioned. Using a spacer can help improve drug delivery and reduce the risk of oral thrush. Synchronizing breaths with inhaler activation ensures proper medication delivery to the lungs. Regular cleaning of the inhaler prevents blockages and ensures optimal functioning. Therefore, all these techniques are important for effective COPD management, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all crucial components of proper MDI technique in COPD, so they are not individually sufficient without the others.
5. During a routine prenatal visit, a nurse measures a client’s fundal height. The client is 26 weeks pregnant. What should the fundal height be?
- A. Approximately 26 cm
- B. Between 24 to 28 cm
- C. Above the umbilicus by two finger widths
- D. Below the xiphoid process
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Between 24 to 28 cm. Fundal height corresponds to the weeks of gestation, so at 26 weeks of pregnancy, the fundal height should range between 24 to 28 cm. This measurement is a quick way to assess fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume. Choice A is incorrect because fundal height may vary and not always match the exact weeks of pregnancy. Choice C, measuring above the umbilicus by two finger widths, is not a standard method for fundal height measurement. Choice D, below the xiphoid process, is too high and not relevant for assessing fundal height during pregnancy.
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