Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for a Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a Lumbar Laminectomy. What information should the nurse reinforce about the action of this adjuvant pain modality?

• A. Mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain
• B. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus
• C. An infusion of medication in the spinal canal will block pain perception
• D. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus on the pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. TENS units work by delivering small electrical impulses through the skin. These impulses are thought to close the 'gates of nerve conduction,' which can help in managing severe pain. Choice B is incorrect because the dulled pain perception does not occur in the cerebral cortex by the TENS unit. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication in the spinal canal. Choice D is incorrect because TENS does not work by distracting the client's focus on pain, but rather by altering pain perception through electrical impulses.

2. What is the most important action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs) in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?

• A. Irrigate the catheter daily.
• B. Change the catheter every 72 hours.
• C. Apply antibiotic ointment at the insertion site.
• D. Ensure the catheter bag is always below bladder level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs) in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure that the catheter bag is always below bladder level. This positioning helps prevent backflow of urine, reducing the risk of CAUTIs. Irrigating the catheter daily (Choice A) is unnecessary and can introduce pathogens. Changing the catheter every 72 hours (Choice B) is not recommended unless clinically indicated to prevent introducing new pathogens. Applying antibiotic ointment at the insertion site (Choice C) is not the most important action to prevent CAUTIs; proper hygiene and maintaining a closed system are more critical.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Right upper quadrant pain
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Bilateral leg swelling.
• B. Sudden onset of chest pain.
• C. Gradual onset of dyspnea.
• D. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gradual onset of dyspnea.' While pulmonary embolism can present with various symptoms, the most common include sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain (often pleuritic in nature), tachypnea, and tachycardia. Bilateral leg swelling is more commonly associated with conditions like deep vein thrombosis, not pulmonary embolism. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation may be seen in conditions like pneumothorax, not typically in pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the gradual onset of dyspnea is the most indicative symptom of pulmonary embolism in this scenario.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Sodium level
• B. Potassium level
• C. Calcium level
• D. Chloride level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium level (choice A) is not typically affected by furosemide. Calcium level (choice C) and chloride level (choice D) are also not the primary focus of monitoring when a client is on furosemide for heart failure.

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