HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?
- A. Daily weight
- B. Gastric residual volumes
- C. Bowel sounds
- D. Urinary and stool output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Barrel chest
- B. Clubbing of the fingers
- C. Cough with sputum production
- D. Use of accessory muscles
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The use of accessory muscles is the most concerning finding in a client with COPD. It indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory distress, requiring immediate attention. Barrel chest is a common physical characteristic in individuals with COPD due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs but is not as acutely concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Clubbing of the fingers is a late sign of chronic hypoxia and is often seen in conditions with prolonged hypoxemia but is not as acute as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production is a common symptom in COPD due to excess mucus production but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress as the use of accessory muscles does.
3. A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. Which finding indicates that preterm labor is occurring?
- A. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva.
- B. Irregular, mild uterine contractions occur every 12 to 15 minutes.
- C. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions.
- D. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cervical changes such as effacement and dilation to 2 cm are strong indicators of imminent preterm labor. These changes, combined with regular contractions, can signify labor at any gestation. Estriol can be detected in maternal plasma as early as 9 weeks of gestation. Levels of salivary estriol have been linked to preterm birth. Irregular, mild contractions occurring every 12 to 15 minutes without cervical change are generally not concerning. While the presence of fetal fibronectin in vaginal secretions between 24 and 36 weeks of gestation may predict preterm labor, its predictive value is limited (20%-40%). Therefore, cervical changes provide more reliable information regarding the risk of preterm labor.
4. A nurse is preparing to perform an admission assessment for a client who reports abdominal pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Perform deep palpation at the end of the admission assessment
- B. Auscultate the client’s abdomen before palpation
- C. Begin palpation of the abdomen at the site of pain
- D. Assess the client’s bowel sounds using the bell of the stethoscope
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Auscultating the abdomen before palpation is the correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario. This approach helps to assess bowel sounds accurately and prevents the alteration of bowel sounds that can occur due to palpation. By auscultating first, the nurse can gather important information about bowel function before proceeding with the palpation. Choice A is incorrect because deep palpation should be avoided initially, especially in a client reporting abdominal pain, as it may cause discomfort or potential harm. Choice C is incorrect as palpation should typically start away from the site of pain to prevent exacerbating discomfort. Choice D is incorrect because assessing bowel sounds with the bell of the stethoscope is not the initial step recommended when a client reports abdominal pain; auscultation should be performed with the diaphragm of the stethoscope first.
5. What is the most important information for the nurse to provide to a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?
- A. Take the medication with food
- B. Avoid foods high in tyramine
- C. Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately
- D. Expect to see improvement within 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any thoughts of self-harm immediately.' When starting an SSRI, clients should be informed to report any thoughts of self-harm promptly. SSRIs can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially in the early stages of treatment. This information is crucial for the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, avoiding foods high in tyramine, and expecting immediate improvement within 24 hours are not the most critical pieces of information for a client starting on an SSRI.