HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. While flushing the proximal port of a triple lumen central venous catheter with heparin solution, the nurse meets resistance. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the cap and apply direct gentle pressure with the syringe
- B. Contact the healthcare provider regarding the need for a chest x-ray
- C. Cover the cap with tape and label the port as being obstructed
- D. Remove the catheter while applying gentle pressure at the insertion site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When encountering resistance while flushing a central venous catheter, it is crucial to contact the healthcare provider regarding the need for a chest x-ray. This resistance may indicate a blockage within the catheter, a kink, or other issues that could compromise the integrity of the catheter or pose a risk to the patient. It is essential to assess the situation through imaging to determine the appropriate course of action. Option A is incorrect because applying direct pressure could cause damage to the catheter or dislodge any potential blockage. Option C is incorrect as labeling the port as obstructed without further assessment may delay necessary interventions. Option D is incorrect as removing the catheter without proper evaluation can lead to complications and should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider.
2. Two days after an abdominal hysterectomy, an elderly female with diabetes has a syncopal episode. The nurse determines that her vital signs are within normal limits, but her blood sugar is 325 mg/dL or 18.04 mmol/L (SI). What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer regular insulin per sliding scale
- B. Cancel the client's dinner tray
- C. Give the client 4 ounces (120 mL) of orange juice
- D. Administer the next scheduled dose of metformin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this case, the nurse should implement the intervention of administering regular insulin per sliding scale. High blood sugar levels, as indicated by a reading of 325 mg/dL, require insulin administration to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia. Canceling the client's dinner tray (choice B) would not address the immediate need to lower the blood sugar level. Giving the client orange juice (choice C) might further increase the blood sugar level as it contains sugar. Administering the next scheduled dose of metformin (choice D) is not appropriate as metformin is not typically used for acute management of high blood sugar levels.
3. Which action should the school nurse take first when conducting a screening for scoliosis?
- A. Compare dorsal trunk measurements
- B. Have the individual extend arms over the head for visualization
- C. Inspect for symmetrical shoulder height
- D. Observe weight-bearing on each leg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inspecting for symmetrical shoulder height is a crucial initial step in screening for scoliosis. Asymmetry in shoulder height can indicate the presence of spinal curvature, which is a key indicator of scoliosis. This assessment is prioritized as it provides a visual clue to potential spinal abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are not the first steps in scoliosis screening. Choice A involves a more detailed measurement that is not the primary visual indicator for scoliosis; choice B is not a primary indicator of scoliosis but can be used for further examination, and choice D is not directly related to identifying spinal curvature.
4. An elderly client with Alzheimer's disease is being admitted to a long-term care facility. The client’s spouse expresses concern about the level of care the client will receive. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Reassure the spouse that the client will be well cared for and provide information about the facility’s care practices.
- B. Inform the spouse that care will be adjusted based on the client’s condition and needs.
- C. Advise the spouse to visit frequently to monitor the quality of care the client receives.
- D. Suggest that the spouse speak with other family members for reassurance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to reassure the spouse that the client will be well cared for and provide information about the facility’s care practices. This response not only addresses the spouse's concerns directly but also helps in building trust and confidence in the care provided. Choice B is not ideal as it may cause unnecessary worry about the fluctuating care levels. Choice C puts the responsibility on the spouse to monitor care, which may not always be feasible or appropriate. Choice D deflects the concern to other family members instead of addressing the spouse's worries directly.
5. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Clarify the client’s consent through the use of gestures and simple terms
- B. Have the interpreter co-sign the consent to validate the client's understanding
- C. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion
- D. Have the client sign the consent form and the nurse witness the signature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Having the interpreter co-sign the consent form is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By having the interpreter co-sign, it ensures an additional layer of verification of the client's understanding and consent, which is crucial when language barriers exist. This step adds a level of confirmation to safeguard that the client's consent is both valid and well-informed. Option A is not sufficient as gestures and simple terms may not fully clarify the client's understanding, especially for complex medical procedures. Option C is unnecessary since the interpreter has already confirmed the client's consent. Option D does not involve the interpreter in validating the client's understanding, which is essential in this situation to ensure effective communication and comprehension between the client and the healthcare team.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access