HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. When administering ceftriaxone sodium intravenously to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Headache
- B. Pruritus
- C. Nausea
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that can indicate a serious condition like airway obstruction or a severe allergic reaction, necessitating immediate intervention to maintain the client's airway and prevent further complications. While headache, pruritus, and nausea are important to assess and manage, they are not as immediately life-threatening as stridor, which requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise.
2. Before administering an intramuscular injection, the nurse's finger is stuck with the needle. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Go to the emergency room to have blood drawn
- B. Prepare the medication using a new syringe
- C. Apply clean gloves before giving the medication
- D. Review the medical history in the client's chart
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, if the nurse's finger is stuck with the needle before administering the injection, the correct action is to prepare the medication using a new syringe. This step is crucial to prevent contamination and ensure the safety of the patient. Going to the emergency room to have blood drawn is unnecessary and does not address the immediate issue of contamination. Applying clean gloves is important for infection control but does not address the potential contamination from the needlestick. Reviewing the medical history in the client's chart is important for overall patient care but is not the priority in this situation where immediate action is required to prevent harm.
3. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned, and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
- B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
- C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
- D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario described, the nurse notes late decelerations during contractions despite repositioning and oxygen administration. Late decelerations are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by increased uterine activity stimulated by oxytocin. The initial action to manage late decelerations is to turn off the oxytocin infusion to reduce uterine stimulation. This step aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth may be necessary if the late decelerations persist or worsen despite discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Notifying the anesthesiologist to disconnect the epidural infusion or applying an internal fetal monitoring device are not the first-line interventions for managing late decelerations.
4. After completion of mandatory counseling, the impaired nurse has asked nursing administration to allow return to work. When the nurse administrator approaches the charge nurse with the impaired nurse’s request, what action is best for the charge nurse to take?
- A. Ask to meet with the impaired nurse’s therapist before allowing the nurse back on the unit
- B. Meet with staff to assess their feelings about the impaired nurse’s return to the unit
- C. Since treatment is completed, assign the nurse to routine RN responsibilities
- D. Allow the impaired nurse to return to work and monitor medication administration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Allowing the impaired nurse to return to work with monitoring is the best course of action in this scenario. By monitoring the impaired nurse's medication administration, the charge nurse can ensure safe practice while supporting the nurse's reintegration into the work environment. Meeting with the therapist (Choice A) is not within the charge nurse's scope of responsibility and may violate the impaired nurse's privacy. Assessing staff feelings (Choice B) is important but should be done by leadership, not the charge nurse. Simply assigning routine duties (Choice C) may not address the need for monitoring and support required in this situation.
5. The client had gastric bypass surgery yesterday. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement during the first 24 postoperative hours?
- A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
- B. Monitor for the appearance of an incisional hernia
- C. Instruct the client to eat small frequent meals
- D. Measure hourly urinary output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring hourly urinary output is crucial during the first 24 postoperative hours to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and early detection of complications like dehydration or inadequate kidney perfusion. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not routinely necessary after gastric bypass surgery unless there are specific indications. Monitoring for an incisional hernia is important but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. Instructing the client to eat small frequent meals is essential for long-term dietary management after gastric bypass surgery, but not the most critical intervention during the initial 24 hours.
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