Nursing Elites

1. When administering ceftriaxone sodium intravenously to a client before surgery, which assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Headache
• B. Pruritus
• C. Nausea
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy breathing sound that can indicate a serious condition like airway obstruction or a severe allergic reaction, necessitating immediate intervention to maintain the client's airway and prevent further complications. While headache, pruritus, and nausea are important to assess and manage, they are not as immediately life-threatening as stridor, which requires prompt attention to prevent respiratory compromise.

2. When taking a health history of a client admitted with acute pancreatitis, which client complaint should be expected?

• A. A low-grade fever and left lower abdominal pain
• B. Severe headache and sweating all the time
• C. Severe mid-epigastric pain after ingesting a heavy meal
• D. Dull, continuous, right lower quadrant pain and nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Severe mid-epigastric pain after ingesting a heavy meal.' This symptom is characteristic of acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas, which often presents with severe pain in the mid-epigastric region that may worsen after eating. Choices A, B, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. A low-grade fever and left lower abdominal pain (Choice A) may be more indicative of other conditions like diverticulitis. Severe headache and sweating (Choice B) are commonly seen in conditions like migraines or infections. Dull, continuous, right lower quadrant pain and nausea (Choice D) could be suggestive of appendicitis rather than acute pancreatitis.

3. An adult client presents to the clinic with large draining ulcers on both lower legs that are characteristic of Kaposi’s Sarcoma lesions. The client is accompanied by two family members. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a blood sample to determine if the client is HIV positive
• B. Send the family to the waiting area while conducting a head-to-toe assessment
• C. Complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV
• D. Ask the family members to wear gloves when touching the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to complete a head-to-toe assessment to identify other signs of HIV. Kaposi’s Sarcoma is commonly associated with HIV infection, and conducting a comprehensive assessment can provide crucial information on potential signs and symptoms related to HIV. This information is essential for providing appropriate care and treatment. Option A is not the priority at this moment, as the focus should be on assessing the client comprehensively first. Sending the family members away (Option B) may not be necessary if they are not interfering with the assessment process. While infection control is important, asking the family members to wear gloves (Option D) is not the most critical action to take in this situation.

4. When should the nurse conduct an Allen’s test?

• A. When obtaining pulmonary artery pressures
• B. To assess for the presence of a deep vein thrombus in the leg
• C. Just before arterial blood gases are drawn peripherally
• D. Prior to attempting a cardiac output calculation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct time to conduct an Allen’s test is just before arterial blood gases are drawn peripherally. This test is performed to assess the adequacy of collateral circulation in the hand before obtaining arterial blood gases. Choice A is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not specifically done when obtaining pulmonary artery pressures. Choice B is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not used to assess deep vein thrombosis. Choice D is incorrect because an Allen’s test is not done specifically before attempting a cardiac output calculation.

5. A client with acute renal failure (ARF) is admitted for uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus and hyperkalemia. The nurse administers an IV dose of regular insulin per sliding scale. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry.
• B. Maintain venous access with an infusion of normal saline.
• C. Assess glucose levels via finger stick every 4 to 6 hours.
• D. Evaluate hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring cardiac activity is crucial in this scenario because hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring of the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry allows for early detection of any potential cardiac complications. Maintaining venous access with a normal saline infusion is important for hydration but does not address the immediate risk of cardiac dysrhythmias posed by hyperkalemia. Assessing glucose levels is essential in diabetes management but is not the priority when dealing with hyperkalemia-induced cardiac risks. Evaluating hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function is important in ARF but is not as urgent as monitoring the client's cardiac activity in the context of hyperkalemia.

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