Nursing Elites

1. A premature infant weighing 1,200 grams at birth receives a prescription for beractant (Survanta) 120 mg endotracheal now and q6 hr for 24 hr. The recommended dose for beractant is 100 mg/kg birth weight per dose. Single-use vials of Survanta are labeled 100 mg/4 ml. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Give 4.8 ml q6 hr
• B. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high
• C. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low
• D. Give 1.2 ml q6 hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 4.8 ml q6 hr. To calculate the dose, you divide the prescribed dose of 120 mg by the concentration of Survanta, which is 100 mg per 4 ml. This results in 4.8 ml per dose, as 120 mg ÷ 100 mg/4 ml = 4.8 ml. Option B suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high is incorrect because the calculated dose of 4.8 ml is based on the recommended dose of 100 mg/kg birth weight. Option C suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low is incorrect as the calculated dose is based on the correct dosage calculation. Option D suggesting to give 1.2 ml q6 hr is incorrect because it doesn't align with the correct calculation.

2. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) IV for treatment of herpes zoster (shingles)?

• A. Initiate cardiac telemetry monitoring
• B. Maintain continuous pulse oximetry
• C. Perform capillary glucose measurements
• D. Monitor serum creatinine levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor serum creatinine levels. Acyclovir can lead to nephrotoxicity, making it essential to monitor kidney function through serum creatinine levels. While cardiac telemetry monitoring (choice A) and maintaining continuous pulse oximetry (choice B) are important in certain conditions, they are not directly related to acyclovir therapy for herpes zoster. Performing capillary glucose measurements (choice C) is not a priority when administering acyclovir for herpes zoster. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial to detect any potential renal issues early, as the drug's nephrotoxic potential requires close monitoring of kidney function.

3. A client prescribed warfarin is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I need to avoid foods high in vitamin C.''
• B. ''I should eat a consistent amount of vitamin K each day.''
• C. ''I can eat as many leafy greens as I want.''
• D. ''I should not worry about any changes in my diet.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Consistency in vitamin K intake is crucial for clients on warfarin to maintain stable anticoagulation levels. Option A is incorrect as vitamin C does not directly interact with warfarin. Option C is incorrect because although leafy greens are high in vitamin K, excessive consumption can affect warfarin's effectiveness. Option D is incorrect as any changes in diet, particularly in vitamin K intake, can impact the efficacy of warfarin.

4. A 12-year-old client who had an appendectomy two days ago is receiving 0.9% normal saline at 50 ml/hour. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.035. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage popsicles and fluids of choice
• B. Evaluate postural blood pressure measurements
• C. Obtain a specimen for urinalysis
• D. Assess bowel sounds in all quadrants

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging fluids helps address dehydration and potentially high urine specific gravity, which is often related to inadequate fluid intake. In this scenario, the client may be at risk of dehydration due to the appendectomy and the high urine specific gravity. Encouraging popsicles and fluids of choice can help increase fluid intake and improve hydration status. The other options are not the priority at this time. Postural blood pressure measurements may be relevant for assessing fluid status but are not the immediate action needed. Obtaining a specimen for urinalysis and assessing bowel sounds are not the priority actions based on the client's condition.

5. To differentiate adventitious lung sounds associated with heart failure from those associated with bacterial pneumonia, what information should the nurse review?

• A. Sputum culture findings
• B. Oxygen saturation level
• C. Amount of coughing
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sputum culture findings. Reviewing sputum culture findings can provide valuable information to differentiate between bacterial pneumonia and heart failure, as the type of bacteria present in the sputum can help identify the specific infection. Oxygen saturation level (Choice B) is important for assessing oxygenation status but does not directly help in distinguishing between the two conditions based on lung sounds. The amount of coughing (Choice C) and respiratory rate (Choice D) may offer some clinical insights but are not as specific or diagnostic as sputum culture findings when differentiating between heart failure and bacterial pneumonia.

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