Nursing Elites

1. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
• B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
• C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical radial pulse deficit is present.
• D. Notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.

2. The client with diabetes mellitus type 1 has a fruity breath odor. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Evaluate the client’s intake and output
• B. Measure the client’s capillary blood glucose
• C. Consult with the dietitian about the client’s diet
• D. Apply a pulse oximeter to the client’s finger

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fruity breath odor in a client with diabetes mellitus type 1 can indicate ketoacidosis, a serious complication. Measuring the client’s capillary blood glucose is the priority nursing action in this scenario as it helps diagnose and manage the condition effectively. Evaluating intake and output may be important for overall assessment but not the priority when dealing with a potential emergency like ketoacidosis. Consulting with a dietitian about the client’s diet is important for long-term management but not the immediate priority. Applying a pulse oximeter is not relevant to addressing the fruity breath odor and suspected ketoacidosis.

3. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

4. After implementing a new fall prevention protocol on the nursing unit, which action by the nurse-manager best evaluates the protocol’s effectiveness?

• A. Compare the number of falls that occurred before and after protocol implementation
• B. Analyze data that reflects the unit’s costs incurred due to the new protocol
• C. Conduct a chart review on the unit to determine the number of clients at risk for falling
• D. Consult with the physical therapist to evaluate the benefits of the new fall protocol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a new fall prevention protocol is by comparing the number of falls that occurred before and after its implementation. This direct comparison helps in assessing the impact of the protocol on reducing fall rates. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of the protocol. Analyzing costs incurred (Choice B), conducting a chart review (Choice C), or consulting with a physical therapist (Choice D) may provide valuable information but do not specifically evaluate the protocol's effectiveness in preventing falls.

5. While a patient is receiving beta-1b interferon every other day for multiple sclerosis, which serum laboratory test findings should the nurse monitor to assess for possible bone marrow suppression caused by the medication? (Select all that apply)

• A. Platelet count
• B. White blood cell count (WBC)
• C. Sodium and potassium
• D. Red blood cell count (RBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta-1b interferon can lead to bone marrow suppression, impacting blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count, white blood cell count (WBC), and red blood cell count (RBC) is essential. Platelet count is a direct indicator of bone marrow function and can show early signs of bone marrow suppression. While sodium, potassium, and albumin/protein levels are important for overall health assessment, they are not directly associated with bone marrow suppression caused by the medication.

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