HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. A college student brings a dorm roommate to the campus clinic because the roommate has been talking to someone who is not present. The client tells the nurse that her voices are saying, “Kill, Kill.†What question should the nurse ask the client next?
- A. When did these voices begin?
- B. Are you planning to obey the voices?
- C. Have you taken any hallucinogens?
- D. Do you believe the voices are real?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing whether the client has a plan to act on the voices is critical for evaluating the risk of harm. Asking if the client is planning to obey the voices helps determine the immediate safety concerns. While understanding when the voices began could provide insight into the situation, assessing the intent to act on them is more urgent. Asking about hallucinogen use may be relevant but does not address the immediate safety issue. Inquiring about the client's belief in the reality of the voices is important but does not address the immediate risk of harm.
2. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) IV for treatment of herpes zoster (shingles)?
- A. Initiate cardiac telemetry monitoring
- B. Maintain continuous pulse oximetry
- C. Perform capillary glucose measurements
- D. Monitor serum creatinine levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monitor serum creatinine levels. Acyclovir can lead to nephrotoxicity, making it essential to monitor kidney function through serum creatinine levels. While cardiac telemetry monitoring (choice A) and maintaining continuous pulse oximetry (choice B) are important in certain conditions, they are not directly related to acyclovir therapy for herpes zoster. Performing capillary glucose measurements (choice C) is not a priority when administering acyclovir for herpes zoster. Monitoring serum creatinine levels is crucial to detect any potential renal issues early, as the drug's nephrotoxic potential requires close monitoring of kidney function.
3. A client has a history of vasovagal attacks resulting in brady-dysrhythmias. Which instruction is most important to include in the teaching plan?
- A. Use stool softeners regularly
- B. Avoid electromagnetic fields
- C. Maintain a low-fat diet
- D. Do not use aspirin products
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use stool softeners regularly.' Vasovagal attacks can be triggered by straining, and using stool softeners can help prevent such attacks. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to preventing vasovagal attacks in this context. Avoiding electromagnetic fields, maintaining a low-fat diet, or not using aspirin products are important for various health reasons but not specifically for preventing vasovagal attacks related to brady-dysrhythmias.
4. A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a prescribed PRN antiemetic
- B. Assess the client for the presence of hemorrhoids
- C. Check the client’s hemoglobin level
- D. Review the client’s current list of medications
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.
5. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only
- B. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription
- C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube
- D. Offer the infant Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining intravenous fluid therapy is crucial for managing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances caused by the vomiting in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is not appropriate as it does not address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances adequately. Providing Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube (Choice C) may not be sufficient to manage the severe fluid and electrolyte losses caused by the condition. Offering Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours (Choice D) may not be as effective as maintaining intravenous fluid therapy, especially in cases where rapid rehydration is necessary.
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