Nursing Elites

1. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Lymphocytes
• C. Eosinophils
• D. Monocytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.

2. The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?

• A. Urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours.
• B. Cleanse around the meatus, discard the first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.
• C. For the next 24 hours, notify the nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens.
• D. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours for the next 24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.

3. The client who is to avoid any weight-bearing on the left leg is using a 3-point crutch gait for ambulation. What is the best action for the nurse to initiate?

• A. Encourage continued use of the 3-point crutch gait by the client
• B. Encourage the client to use a wheelchair for mobility
• C. Instruct the client in the use of a 4-point crutch gait
• D. Instruct the client in the use of a 2-point crutch gait

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client needs to avoid weight-bearing on the left leg. A 4-point crutch gait involves using both crutches and both legs, making it more appropriate for weight-bearing restrictions. Encouraging the use of a 3-point gait (choice A) would not provide adequate support for the client's condition. While using a wheelchair (choice B) could be an option, instructing the client in a 4-point crutch gait would promote mobility while adhering to weight-bearing restrictions. A 2-point crutch gait (choice D) involves using both crutches and one leg, which is not suitable for avoiding weight-bearing on the left leg.

4. A client with a large pleural effusion undergoes a thoracentesis. Following the procedure, which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. The client has asymmetrical chest wall expansion
• B. The client complains of pain at the insertion site
• C. The client's chest x-ray indicates decreased pleural effusion
• D. The client's arterial blood gases show pH 7.35, PaO2 85, PaCO2 35, HCO3 26

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asymmetrical chest wall expansion is a critical finding post-thoracentesis as it may suggest a pneumothorax, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The other options, such as pain at the insertion site (Choice B), decreased pleural effusion on chest x-ray (Choice C), and normal arterial blood gases within acceptable ranges (Choice D) do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like asymmetrical chest wall expansion does.

5. Which intervention should the nurse include in a long-term plan of care for a client with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?

• A. Reduce risk factors for infection
• B. Administer high-flow oxygen during sleep
• C. Limit fluid intake to reduce secretions
• D. Use diaphragmatic breathing to achieve better exhalation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Diaphragmatic breathing is a beneficial intervention for clients with COPD as it helps improve breathing efficiency and manage symptoms by promoting better air exchange in the lungs. It aids in achieving better exhalation, reducing air trapping, and enhancing overall lung function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. While reducing risk factors for infection is important for overall health, it is not a specific long-term intervention for COPD. Administering high-flow oxygen during sleep may be necessary in some cases but is not typically a long-term strategy for managing COPD. Limiting fluid intake to reduce secretions is not recommended as hydration is essential for individuals with COPD to maintain optimal respiratory function and prevent complications like mucus plugs.

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