which type of leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

CAT Exam Practice Test

1. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.

2. A male client with angina pectoris is being discharged from the hospital. What instructions should the nurse plan to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep nitroglycerin in a light-colored container and readily available. Nitroglycerin should be protected from light to maintain its effectiveness. Option A is incorrect because physical exercise immediately before eating can trigger angina. Option B is incorrect as cold weather can exacerbate angina symptoms. Option D is incorrect as isometric exercises can increase the workload on the heart, which is not recommended for individuals with angina.

3. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.

4. A female client tells the clinic nurse that she has doubts about binge eating but cannot make herself vomit after meals. Which action by the nurse provides data to support the suspected diagnosis of bulimia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inquiring about laxative and diuretic use helps confirm bulimia as these are common behaviors associated with the disorder. Asking the client to complete a food diary (Choice A) may provide information on eating patterns but does not directly support the diagnosis of bulimia. Reviewing lab data (Choice B) for thyroid function is not specific to bulimia. Encouraging the client to describe her exercise regimen (Choice D) may be relevant for overall health assessment but does not specifically address bulimia symptoms.

5. Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vomiting can lead to significant loss of magnesium, causing hypomagnesemia. In this scenario, the young adult client with intractable vomiting from food poisoning is at higher risk of developing hypomagnesemia due to the loss of magnesium through vomiting. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to present with hypomagnesemia. Hyperparathyroidism (B) is associated with hypercalcemia, renal failure (C) can lead to hypermagnesemia, and overconsumption of simple carbohydrates (D) is not directly linked to magnesium imbalances.

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