HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?
- A. Neutrophils
- B. Lymphocytes
- C. Eosinophils
- D. Monocytes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.
2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis reports a new onset of increasing fatigue. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Assist the client in conserving energy during daily activities
- B. Explain to the client that this could be a side effect of the medication
- C. Assess the client for pallor
- D. Encourage the client to maintain a balanced diet and hydration
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis reporting increasing fatigue is to assess the client for pallor. Fatigue can be a sign of anemia or other complications; assessing for pallor can help determine if anemia is the cause. Option A is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of fatigue. Option B assumes the cause without further assessment. Option D is important for overall health but assessing for pallor takes precedence to identify immediate issues related to fatigue.
3. A client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue, poor appetite, general malaise, and vague joint pain that improves mid-morning. The client has been using over-the-counter ibuprofen for several months. The healthcare provider makes an initial diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which laboratory test should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Sedimentation rate
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Anti–CCP antibodies
- D. Activated Clotting Time
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sedimentation rate. Sedimentation rate, Anti–CCP antibodies, and C-reactive protein are commonly used laboratory tests to indicate inflammation and help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis. An elevated sedimentation rate is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation in the body, which is often seen in RA. White blood cell count is not specific for RA and is not typically significant in the diagnosis. Anti–CCP antibodies are specific to RA and are useful in confirming the diagnosis. Activated Clotting Time is not relevant to the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis as it is not specific to this condition.
4. A client with chronic alcoholism is admitted with a decreased serum magnesium level. Which snack option should the nurse recommend to this client?
- A. Cheddar cheese and crackers
- B. Carrot and celery sticks
- C. Beef bologna sausage slices
- D. Dry roasted almonds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Dry roasted almonds are the most suitable snack option for a client with chronic alcoholism and a decreased serum magnesium level because they are high in magnesium. Magnesium is essential in addressing the deficiency. Cheddar cheese and crackers (Choice A) do not contain as much magnesium as almonds. Carrot and celery sticks (Choice B) are healthy choices but do not provide a significant amount of magnesium. Beef bologna sausage slices (Choice C) are not a good choice as processed meats are not rich in magnesium.
5. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client’s discharge plan?
- A. Describe the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels.
- B. Encourage a balanced and nutritious diet.
- C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
- D. Educate on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuing outpatient treatment is crucial for managing anorexia nervosa and preventing future complications. Reinforcing the need to continue outpatient treatment ensures ongoing support, monitoring, and therapy for the client's anorexia nervosa. Describing the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels (Choice A) is relevant but does not address the underlying eating disorder directly. Encouraging a balanced and nutritious diet (Choice B) is important; however, specific dietary recommendations should be tailored to the individual's condition by healthcare providers. Educating on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa (Choice D) is informative but does not provide a direct actionable step for the client's immediate discharge plan, unlike the importance of continuing outpatient treatment.
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