HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?
- A. Neutrophils
- B. Lymphocytes
- C. Eosinophils
- D. Monocytes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.
2. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?
- A. A client who is bedfast, with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels
- B. A client with hematuria and decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
- C. A client who has a history of frequent urinary tract infections
- D. A client who is confused and frequently forgets to go to the bathroom
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.
3. A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which snack is best for the nurse to recommend to the client?
- A. Plain yogurt sweetened with raw honey
- B. Peanuts in the shell, roasted or unroasted
- C. Aged farmer’s cheese with celery sticks
- D. Baked apples topped with dried raisins
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Plain yogurt sweetened with raw honey. This option is the best choice for a client with severe neutropenia undergoing chemotherapy because it is less likely to harbor harmful bacteria, which could cause infections due to the weakened immune system. Peanuts in the shell (choice B) may carry a risk of contamination, while aged farmer's cheese with celery sticks (choice C) and baked apples topped with dried raisins (choice D) may not be as safe as plain yogurt for a client with severe neutropenia.
4. A young adult client was admitted 36 hours ago for a head injury that occurred as a result of a motorcycle accident. In the last 4 hours, the client’s urine output has increased to over 200 ml/hour. Before reporting the finding to the healthcare provider, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Obtain capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours
- B. Measure oral secretions suctioned during the last 4 hours
- C. Evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values
- D. Obtain blood pressure and assess for dependent edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values. The increased urine output following a head injury could indicate diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst. Evaluating osmolality is crucial for diagnosing diabetes insipidus. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is irrelevant to the client's current symptom of increased urine output. Choice D is also not the most appropriate intervention as the focus should be on assessing for a potential endocrine issue related to the increased urine output.
5. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes NPH/regular 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of azithromycin an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the azithromycin right after breakfast
- B. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the azithromycin
- C. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating
- D. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the azithromycin the next day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Azithromycin should ideally be taken on an empty stomach; however, if taken after breakfast, it should not affect its efficacy. Instructing the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating allows for proper absorption without compromising its effectiveness. Providing an antacid with azithromycin is not necessary in this case. Offering a new breakfast tray in an hour or skipping the dose is not the best course of action as it may lead to missed doses and potential effectiveness issues.
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