Nursing Elites

1. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Lymphocytes
• C. Eosinophils
• D. Monocytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.

2. A client with a large pleural effusion undergoes a thoracentesis. Following the procedure, which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. The client has asymmetrical chest wall expansion
• B. The client complains of pain at the insertion site
• C. The client's chest x-ray indicates decreased pleural effusion
• D. The client's arterial blood gases show pH 7.35, PaO2 85, PaCO2 35, HCO3 26

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asymmetrical chest wall expansion is a critical finding post-thoracentesis as it may suggest a pneumothorax, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The other options, such as pain at the insertion site (Choice B), decreased pleural effusion on chest x-ray (Choice C), and normal arterial blood gases within acceptable ranges (Choice D) do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like asymmetrical chest wall expansion does.

3. An older client is having photocoagulation for macular degeneration. What intervention should the nurse implement during post-procedure care in the outpatient surgical unit?

• A. Apply bilateral eye patches while sleeping
• B. Use a whiteboard to communicate with the client
• C. Arrange food on the plate in a clockwise order
• D. Verbally identify oneself when entering the room

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to apply bilateral eye patches while sleeping. This measure helps protect the eyes and support healing following photocoagulation for macular degeneration. Choice B is incorrect as using a whiteboard is not directly related to post-procedure care for this intervention. Choice C is incorrect as arranging food on the plate in a clockwise order is not relevant to the post-procedure care of photocoagulation. Choice D is incorrect as verbally identifying oneself when entering the room is important for communication but not specific to the post-procedure care in this scenario.

4. When educating a group of school-age children on reducing the risk of Lyme disease, which instruction should the camp nurse include?

• A. Wash hands frequently
• B. Avoid drinking lake water
• C. Wear long sleeves and pants
• D. Do not share personal products

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to reduce the risk of Lyme disease is to wear long sleeves and pants. This helps prevent tick bites, which are the primary mode of transmission for Lyme disease. Wearing protective clothing reduces the skin's exposure to ticks, decreasing the chances of getting bitten. Washing hands frequently (Choice A) is important for general hygiene but not specifically for preventing Lyme disease. Avoiding drinking lake water (Choice B) is unrelated to the prevention of Lyme disease. Not sharing personal products (Choice D) is important for preventing the spread of infections but does not directly reduce the risk of Lyme disease.

5. A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client’s serum laboratory value requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Total calcium 9 mg/dl (2.25 mmol/L SI)
• B. Creatinine 4 mg/dl (354 micromol/L SI)
• C. Phosphate 4 mg/dl (1.293 mmol/L SI)
• D. Fasting glucose 95 mg/dl (5.3 mmol/L SI)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates possible renal impairment, which requires intervention. High creatinine levels are associated with decreased kidney function, and in this case, it suggests potential renal issues due to long-term corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients with osteoporosis on corticosteroid therapy to prevent further complications. Total calcium levels within the normal range are suitable for a client with osteoporosis receiving calcium carbonate. Phosphate and fasting glucose levels do not directly indicate renal impairment in this scenario.

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