Nursing Elites

1. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Lymphocytes
• C. Eosinophils
• D. Monocytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.

2. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?

• A. Continue to measure the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
• B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
• C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
• D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.

3. A client is admitted with severe dehydration. What is the most important assessment finding for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Changes in mental status
• B. Urine output and color
• C. Blood pressure and heart rate
• D. Skin turgor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Changes in mental status are crucial to monitor in a client with severe dehydration. Altered mental status, such as confusion or lethargy, can indicate severe dehydration and potential complications like electrolyte imbalances affecting the brain. Monitoring urine output and color (choice B) is essential but may not provide immediate signs of severe dehydration. While monitoring blood pressure and heart rate (choice C) is important, changes in mental status take precedence as they can indicate more critical conditions. Skin turgor (choice D) is a valuable assessment for dehydration, but changes in mental status take priority due to their direct correlation with severe dehydration.

4. While changing the pressure ulcer dressing of a client who is immobile, the nurse notes that the boundary edges of the wound have increased. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should review which of the client’s serum laboratory values?

• A. Potassium
• B. Platelets
• C. Creatinine
• D. Albumin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Albumin. Reviewing albumin levels is crucial in this situation because low albumin levels can impact wound healing and contribute to increased wound edges. Potassium (choice A) is not directly related to wound healing or wound edges. Platelets (choice B) are more related to blood clotting than wound healing. Creatinine (choice C) is related to kidney function, not specifically to wound healing or wound edges.

5. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 mmHg and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

• A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
• B. Acute kidney injury due to glomerular damage
• C. Heart block due to myocardial damage
• D. Blindness secondary to cataracts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stroke secondary to hemorrhage. Hypertension increases the risk of stroke due to the stress and damage it causes to blood vessels, which can lead to hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because acute kidney injury is more commonly associated with chronic uncontrolled hypertension, not acute elevations. Choice C is incorrect as heart block is not a direct consequence of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as hypertension does not directly cause cataracts leading to blindness.

Similar Questions