Nursing Elites

1. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?

• A. Neutrophils
• B. Lymphocytes
• C. Eosinophils
• D. Monocytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.

2. The nurse administers an oral antiviral to a client with shingles. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Decreased white blood cell count
• B. Pruritus and muscle aches
• C. Elevated liver function tests
• D. Vomiting and diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Elevated liver function tests. When administering antivirals, especially orally, monitoring liver function tests is crucial as it may indicate liver toxicity. This finding should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Choice A, decreased white blood cell count, may be expected with certain antivirals but is not the most critical finding in this scenario. Pruritus and muscle aches (choice B) are common side effects of antivirals and do not require immediate reporting. Vomiting and diarrhea (choice D) are also common side effects that may not be as concerning as elevated liver function tests.

3. A client with multiple sclerosis is experiencing scotomas (blind spots), which are limiting peripheral vision. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Encourage the use of corrective lenses during the day
• B. Practice visual exercises that focus on a still object
• C. Alternate an eye patch from eye every 2 hours
• D. Teach techniques for scanning the environment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with multiple sclerosis experiencing scotomas and limited peripheral vision is to teach techniques for scanning the environment. This intervention helps the client compensate for vision loss by learning how to scan and explore their surroundings effectively. Encouraging the use of corrective lenses may not address the issue of scotomas, and visual exercises focusing on a still object may not enhance peripheral vision. Alternating an eye patch every 2 hours is not typically indicated for scotomas in multiple sclerosis, making it an incorrect choice.

4. The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?

• A. Urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours.
• B. Cleanse around the meatus, discard the first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.
• C. For the next 24 hours, notify the nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens.
• D. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours for the next 24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.

5. A new mother asks the nurse if the newborn infant has an infection because the healthcare provider prescribed a blood test called the TORCH screen test. Which response should the nurse offer to the mother's inquiry?

• A. Rising titers identify the etiology of certain neuro-sensory birth defects
• B. The screen determines the risk for inherited anomalies in the newborn
• C. The test identifies the correct antibiotic to give the newborn for an infection
• D. Exposure to infections that can cross the placenta cause a positive antibody titer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The TORCH screen test is used to detect infections that can affect the newborn by showing if there was exposure to these infections. Choice A is incorrect because the TORCH screen test is not specifically for identifying the etiology of neuro-sensory birth defects. Choice B is incorrect because the test does not determine the risk for inherited anomalies. Choice C is incorrect because the test is not used to identify the correct antibiotic for an infection, but rather to detect infections that may have affected the newborn.

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