HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?
- A. Neutrophils
- B. Lymphocytes
- C. Eosinophils
- D. Monocytes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.
2. A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a prescribed PRN antiemetic
- B. Assess the client for the presence of hemorrhoids
- C. Check the client’s hemoglobin level
- D. Review the client’s current list of medications
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.
3. A female client tells the clinic nurse that she has doubts about binge eating but cannot make herself vomit after meals. Which action by the nurse provides data to support the suspected diagnosis of bulimia?
- A. Ask the client to complete a food diary for the last 3 days
- B. Review the client’s lab data to determine her TSH, T3, and T4 levels
- C. Interview the client about her use of laxatives and diuretics
- D. Encourage the client to describe her daily exercise regimen
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inquiring about laxative and diuretic use helps confirm bulimia as these are common behaviors associated with the disorder. Asking the client to complete a food diary (Choice A) may provide information on eating patterns but does not directly support the diagnosis of bulimia. Reviewing lab data (Choice B) for thyroid function is not specific to bulimia. Encouraging the client to describe her exercise regimen (Choice D) may be relevant for overall health assessment but does not specifically address bulimia symptoms.
4. An adult male with a 6 cm thoracic aneurysm is being prepared for surgery. The nurse reports to the healthcare provider that the client’s blood pressure is 220/112 mmHg, so an antihypertensive agent is added to the client’s IV infusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Reports a tearing, sharp pain between his shoulder blades
- B. Blood pressure reading of 200/100 mmHg 15 minutes later
- C. Rose-colored urine draining from the urinary catheter
- D. Sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular beats (PVC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A tearing, sharp pain between the shoulder blades may indicate aortic dissection, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is highly concerning in a patient with a thoracic aneurysm. Choice B is not as urgent as the pain symptom described in choice A. Choice C could indicate hematuria but is not as critical as the potential aortic dissection in choice A. Choice D, sinus tachycardia with PVCs, may be related to the patient's condition but is not as indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation as the tearing, sharp pain indicative of aortic dissection.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with pulmonary edema who is reporting two-pillow orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. The nurse identifies rapid shallow respirations and the use of accessory muscles. Which action should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Administer the prescribed amiodarone (Cordarone) immediately
- B. Institute a daily fluid restriction while the client is in the hospital
- C. Perform a blood draw for serum Troponin, CK, and CK-MB levels
- D. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position to facilitate perfusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering amiodarone is appropriate if arrhythmias are present in the context of pulmonary edema, as it helps manage irregular heart rhythms. In this case, the client is experiencing symptoms related to respiratory distress, and amiodarone can address potential arrhythmias contributing to the condition. Options B and D are not directly related to managing symptoms of pulmonary edema and do not address the underlying cause of the client's distress. Option C, performing blood tests for cardiac enzymes, is important for assessing possible myocardial damage but does not directly address the immediate respiratory distress associated with pulmonary edema.
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