Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
• C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
• D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to a client. What is the most appropriate site to use for an IM injection in an adult?

• A. Dorsal gluteal muscle
• B. Vastus lateralis muscle
• C. Rectus femoris muscle
• D. Deltoid muscle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Vastus lateralis muscle. The vastus lateralis muscle is a recommended site for IM injections in adults due to its size and accessibility. The dorsal gluteal muscle is not recommended for IM injections in adults due to the proximity to major nerves and blood vessels, increasing the risk of injury. The rectus femoris muscle is not a common site for IM injections in adults. The deltoid muscle is typically used for IM injections in small-volume medications or vaccines, especially in adults.

3. During an admission assessment on an HIV positive client diagnosed with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), which symptoms should the nurse carefully observe the client for?

• A. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight
• B. Altered mental status and tachypnea
• C. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity
• D. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered mental status and tachypnea. These symptoms are indicative of PCP and severe HIV progression. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight (choice A) may be seen in HIV/AIDS but is not specific to PCP. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity (choice C) are characteristic of oral thrush, which is more commonly associated with Candida infections in HIV patients. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields (choice D) would not be expected with PCP, as it typically presents with hypoxemia and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging.

4. The charge nurse of a cardiac telemetry unit is assigning client care to a registered nurse (RN) and a practical nurse (PN). Which client should be assigned to the RN?

• A. One day after a permanent pacemaker insertion, a client's telemetry monitor shows a pacer rhythm.
• B. Two hours after undergoing cardioversion, a client's telemetry monitor shows a normal sinus rhythm.
• C. A client started on carvedilol the previous day for heart failure has controlled atrial fibrillation.
• D. Four hours after admission, a client with syncope shows complete heart block on the telemetry monitor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because complete heart block is a critical condition that requires immediate assessment and management by a registered nurse (RN). In complete heart block, there is a significant conduction disturbance that can lead to serious complications. The RN is better equipped to handle such complex and potentially life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C involve less critical conditions that can be managed by a practical nurse (PN) under the supervision of the RN. Therefore, assigning the client with complete heart block to the RN ensures prompt and appropriate intervention.

5. What action should the nurse take after a client produces the first of a series of sputum samples for cytology?

• A. Ensure the client remains NPO until all samples are collected
• B. Transport the sputum container to the laboratory in a biohazard bag
• C. Discard the initial sample and document the time it was obtained
• D. Document the time the client last ate or drank on the laboratory slip

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take after a client produces the first of a series of sputum samples for cytology is to transport the sputum container to the laboratory in a biohazard bag. This is important to ensure proper handling and prevent contamination of the sample. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to keep the client NPO until all samples are collected. Choice C is incorrect as the initial sample should not be discarded but rather transported to the laboratory. Choice D is also incorrect as documenting the time the client last ate or drank is not directly relevant to the immediate action needed for the sputum sample.

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