Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?

• A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
• C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
• D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.

2. A client is admitted with pyelonephritis, and cultures reveal an Escherichia coli infection. The client is allergic to penicillins, and the healthcare provider prescribed vancomycin IV. The nurse should plan to carefully monitor the client for which finding during IV administration?

• A. Tissue sloughing upon extravasation
• B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate
• C. Tinnitus and vertigo
• D. Erythema of the face, neck, and chest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tinnitus and vertigo. Vancomycin can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, leading to symptoms like tinnitus and vertigo. Monitoring for these adverse effects is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tissue sloughing, elevated blood pressure and heart rate, and erythema of the face, neck, and chest are not typically associated with vancomycin administration. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for signs of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity such as tinnitus and vertigo.

3. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

4. A client recovering from abdominal surgery is on a clear liquid diet. The nurse should identify which of the following as the most appropriate food choice for this diet?

• A. Chicken noodle soup
• B. Grape juice
• C. Cream of wheat
• D. Vanilla pudding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Grape juice is the most appropriate choice for a clear liquid diet as it is a transparent fluid that is easily digested. Clear liquid diets aim to provide fluids and electrolytes while being easy on the digestive system. Choices A, C, and D are not suitable for a clear liquid diet as they are not in liquid form or do not meet the criteria of being easily digestible for someone recovering from abdominal surgery. Chicken noodle soup, cream of wheat, and vanilla pudding are not considered clear liquids and may not be well-tolerated by a client who has undergone abdominal surgery.

5. What is the best response when a two-year-old boy begins to cry when his mother starts to leave?

• A. Say, 'Let's wave bye-bye to Mommy.'
• B. Say, 'Let me read this book to you.'
• C. Say, 'Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.'
• D. Say, 'Now, now, be a big boy, Mommy will be back soon.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response in this situation is to offer a distraction to the child. Reading a book can help soothe the child during separation from the parent by redirecting their attention. Choice A might not be as effective as providing a distraction like reading a book. Choice C dismisses the child's feelings and generalizes behavior, which is not helpful. Choice D diminishes the child's emotions and does not provide a constructive way to help the child cope with the separation anxiety.

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