HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?
- A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
- B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
- C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
- D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.
2. A client arrives at the emergency department experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The healthcare provider prescribes an insulin intravenous drip. Which type of insulin should the nurse locate for the registered nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids?
- A. Isophane
- B. Glargine
- C. Regular
- D. Detemir
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct insulin type for the nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids is regular insulin. In the scenario of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), rapid reduction of blood glucose levels is crucial. Regular insulin has a fast onset of action, making it suitable for intravenous administration to address the high blood sugar levels seen in DKA. Isophane, Glargine, and Detemir are not appropriate choices for intravenous administration in this emergency situation as they are intermediate-acting or long-acting insulins which do not provide the rapid response needed in DKA.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the LPN/LVN recommend the client avoid?
- A. Fresh fruits
- B. Grilled chicken
- C. Whole grain bread
- D. Canned soup
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, canned soup. Canned soups are often high in sodium content, which can be harmful to individuals with hypertension following a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits, grilled chicken, and whole grain bread are generally healthier options with lower sodium content and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits provide essential vitamins and minerals, grilled chicken is a lean protein source, and whole grain bread offers fiber and nutrients without excessive sodium levels. Avoiding canned soup aligns with the goal of reducing sodium intake to manage hypertension.
4. When teaching the guardian of a 12-year-old male client about manifestations of puberty, which of the following physical changes typically occurs first?
- A. Appearance of downy hair on the upper lip
- B. Hair growth in the axillae
- C. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum
- D. Deepening of the voice
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During puberty in males, the first physical change that typically occurs is the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. This change is due to increased production of testosterone, which stimulates growth and development of the genital organs. The appearance of downy hair on the upper lip (Choice A) and hair growth in the axillae (Choice B) usually follow the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. Deepening of the voice (Choice D) is a later stage change that occurs during puberty as the larynx (voice box) grows and the vocal cords lengthen and thicken.
5. A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?
- A. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level.
- B. Assess the client's apical pulse.
- C. Check for jugular vein distention.
- D. Measure the client's urine output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.