Nursing Elites

1. A client has a history of vasovagal attacks resulting in brady-dysrhythmias. Which instruction is most important to include in the teaching plan?

• A. Use stool softeners regularly
• B. Avoid electromagnetic fields
• C. Maintain a low-fat diet
• D. Do not use aspirin products

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use stool softeners regularly.' Vasovagal attacks can be triggered by straining, and using stool softeners can help prevent such attacks. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to preventing vasovagal attacks in this context. Avoiding electromagnetic fields, maintaining a low-fat diet, or not using aspirin products are important for various health reasons but not specifically for preventing vasovagal attacks related to brady-dysrhythmias.

2. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab value is important for the nurse to review before contacting the health care provider?

• A. capillary glucose
• B. urine specific gravity
• C. Serum calcium
• D. white blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling can be indicative of hypocalcemia, which can affect the nervous system. Reviewing serum calcium levels is crucial to address this potential issue. Options A, B, and D are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client and are not typically associated with numbness and tingling around the mouth and fingers. Capillary glucose levels are more relevant in assessing for diabetes or monitoring glucose control. Urine specific gravity is useful in evaluating hydration status. White blood cell count is typically checked to assess infection or immune response, which are not indicated by the client's symptoms of numbness and tingling.

3. After successful resuscitation, a client is given propranolol and transferred to the Intensive Coronary Care Unit (ICCU). On admission, magnesium sulfate 4 grams IV in 250 ml D5W at one gram/hour. Which assessment findings require immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Dark amber urine draining via an indwelling catheter at a rate of 40 ml per hour
• B. Serum calcium of 9.0 mg/dl (2.2 mmol/L SI) and magnesium of 1.8 mg/dl or Eq/L (0.74 mmol/L SI)
• C. Sinus rhythm at 72 beats/minute and peripheral blood pressure of 99/62
• D. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is indicative of possible magnesium toxicity, which can be a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. It is a critical finding that needs prompt attention to prevent further complications. The other options are not as urgent: A - dark amber urine may indicate dehydration but does not require immediate intervention, B - serum calcium and magnesium levels are within normal limits, C - sinus rhythm and blood pressure values are also within normal range and do not require immediate action.

4. When administering diazepam, a benzodiazepine, 10 mg IV push PRN for a client with alcohol withdrawal symptoms, which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Protect the medication from light exposure
• B. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness
• C. Observe for onset of generalized bruising or bleeding
• D. Perform ongoing assessment of respiratory status

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering diazepam for a client with alcohol withdrawal symptoms, it is crucial to perform ongoing assessment of respiratory status. Diazepam can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for continuous monitoring to detect any signs of respiratory distress early. Protecting the medication from light exposure is a general guideline for some drugs but is not a specific concern for diazepam. Observing for bruising or bleeding is not directly associated with the administration of diazepam for alcohol withdrawal symptoms, making choices A and C incorrect.

5. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

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