Nursing Elites

1. A client has a history of vasovagal attacks resulting in brady-dysrhythmias. Which instruction is most important to include in the teaching plan?

• A. Use stool softeners regularly
• B. Avoid electromagnetic fields
• C. Maintain a low-fat diet
• D. Do not use aspirin products

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use stool softeners regularly.' Vasovagal attacks can be triggered by straining, and using stool softeners can help prevent such attacks. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to preventing vasovagal attacks in this context. Avoiding electromagnetic fields, maintaining a low-fat diet, or not using aspirin products are important for various health reasons but not specifically for preventing vasovagal attacks related to brady-dysrhythmias.

2. After changing to a new brand of laundry detergent, an adult male reports that he has a fine itchy rash. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Bilateral Wheezing
• B. Urticaria
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urticaria. An itchy rash following a change in detergent may indicate an allergic reaction, specifically urticaria (hives), which requires immediate attention. Urticaria can be a sign of a severe allergic reaction, such as anaphylaxis. Bilateral wheezing (choice A) may suggest respiratory issues like asthma but is not directly related to the skin rash. Peripheral edema (choice C) and elevated blood pressure (choice D) are not typically associated with an allergic reaction to laundry detergent and would not be the priority assessment findings in this scenario.

3. The public health nurse received funding to initiate a primary prevention program in the community. Which program best fits the nurse’s proposal?

• A. Case management and screening for clients with HIV.
• B. Regional relocation center for earthquake victims.
• C. Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women.
• D. Lead screening for children in low-income housing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women. This option aligns with primary prevention by preventing deficiencies before they occur, which is a key aspect of primary prevention. Providing vitamin supplements to high-risk pregnant women can help prevent birth defects and complications. Choices A, B, and D do not align with primary prevention strategies. Case management and screening for clients with HIV (Choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection and management. A regional relocation center for earthquake victims (Choice B) is focused on addressing the aftermath of a disaster rather than preventing it. Lead screening for children in low-income housing (Choice D) is more about early detection and intervention rather than primary prevention.

4. A client recovering from abdominal surgery is on a clear liquid diet. The nurse should identify which of the following as the most appropriate food choice for this diet?

• A. Chicken noodle soup
• B. Grape juice
• C. Cream of wheat
• D. Vanilla pudding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Grape juice is the most appropriate choice for a clear liquid diet as it is a transparent fluid that is easily digested. Clear liquid diets aim to provide fluids and electrolytes while being easy on the digestive system. Choices A, C, and D are not suitable for a clear liquid diet as they are not in liquid form or do not meet the criteria of being easily digestible for someone recovering from abdominal surgery. Chicken noodle soup, cream of wheat, and vanilla pudding are not considered clear liquids and may not be well-tolerated by a client who has undergone abdominal surgery.

5. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?

• A. Continue to measure the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
• B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
• C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
• D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.

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