in performing the admission assessment for a client experiencing complications of long term parkinsons disease which question by the nurse provides th
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HESI CAT Exam Test Bank

1. In conducting the admission assessment for a client experiencing complications of long-term Parkinson’s disease, which question by the nurse provides the best information about disease progression?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Asking about being 'frozen to a spot and unable to move' is the most indicative of disease progression in Parkinson’s disease. Freezing episodes are a common symptom in advanced stages, indicating a more severe progression of the disease. Choices A, B, and D focus on common symptoms of Parkinson’s disease but do not specifically address the aspect of disease progression related to freezing episodes.

2. When a UAP reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats per minute, what action should the charge nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to notify the health care provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume. A weak pulse with bradycardia (pulse rate of 44 beats per minute) requires immediate follow-up to investigate potential underlying issues. In this situation, it is crucial to involve the healthcare provider for further assessment and intervention. Instructing the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds (Choice A) may delay necessary actions. Determining capillary refill time (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing a weak pulse, and assigning an LPN to assess an apical radial pulse deficit (Choice C) is not as urgent as involving the healthcare provider.

3. An adult male is admitted to the intensive care unit because he experienced a sudden onset of sharp chest pain and shortness of breath earlier today. Following an emergent pulmonary angiogram, the client is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism, the most critical intervention is to monitor for signs of increased bleeding. Pulmonary embolism treatment often involves anticoagulation therapy, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or gastrointestinal bleeding is essential to prevent complications. Instructing on the use of incentive spirometry can be beneficial for preventing pulmonary complications but is not as urgent as monitoring for bleeding. Observing for confusion and restlessness may indicate hypoxia but is not the most crucial intervention in this scenario. Administering intravenous opioids for severe pain might be necessary but is not the priority compared to monitoring for bleeding, which is directly related to the treatment for pulmonary embolism.

4. After successful resuscitation, a client is given propranolol and transferred to the Intensive Coronary Care Unit (ICCU). On admission, magnesium sulfate 4 grams IV in 250 ml D5W at one gram/hour. Which assessment findings require immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is indicative of possible magnesium toxicity, which can be a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. It is a critical finding that needs prompt attention to prevent further complications. The other options are not as urgent: A - dark amber urine may indicate dehydration but does not require immediate intervention, B - serum calcium and magnesium levels are within normal limits, C - sinus rhythm and blood pressure values are also within normal range and do not require immediate action.

5. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.

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