Nursing Elites

1. A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client’s plan of care?

• A. High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter
• B. High risk of injury related to ambulation
• C. Knowledge deficit related to a high-protein diet
• D. Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Uremic frost is a condition in which urea and other waste products are excreted through the skin, leaving a powdery residue. This indicates poor hygiene and self-care, common issues in patients with CKD and renal osteodystrophy. Proper hygiene measures are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be included in the plan of care for a CKD patient with renal osteodystrophy. Choice A is more related to a vascular access issue, choice B is more related to mobility concerns, and choice C is more related to dietary education.

2. During the administration of albuterol per nebulizer, the client complains of shakiness. The client’s vital signs are heart rate 120 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, blood pressure 140/80. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer an anxiolytic
• B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• C. Stop the albuterol administration and restart in 30 minutes
• D. Educate the client about the side effects of albuterol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shakiness is a known side effect of albuterol, which can often be managed without the need for additional medications. Educating the client about the potential side effects of albuterol, including shakiness, helps them understand what to expect and how to manage these effects. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice A) is not indicated as shakiness related to albuterol is not a sign of anxiety. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is not necessary based on the client's presentation of shakiness and vital signs. Stopping the albuterol administration and restarting in 30 minutes (Choice C) may not be necessary since shakiness is a common side effect that can often be managed without interrupting the treatment.

3. The nurse is assessing a first-day postpartum client. Which finding is most indicative of a postpartum infection?

• A. Oral temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
• B. Blood pressure of 122/74 mmHg
• C. Moderate amount of foul-smelling lochia
• D. White blood count of 19,000/mm³ (19x10^9/L SI units)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A foul-smelling lochia is indicative of a postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Foul-smelling lochia suggests the presence of infection due to the breakdown of tissue by bacteria, leading to the malodor. An oral temperature elevation and an elevated white blood cell count are nonspecific and can be present in various conditions other than postpartum infections, making them less indicative. A blood pressure within normal limits is not typically associated with postpartum infections.

4. The nurse is admitting a client from the post-anesthesia unit to the postoperative surgical care unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Advance to clear liquids as tolerated
• B. Straight catheterization if unable to void
• C. Administer Cefazolin 1 gram IVPQ q6 hours
• D. Obtain a complete blood cell count (CBC) in the morning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform straight catheterization if the client is unable to void. This action is essential to prevent urinary retention and its potential complications following anesthesia. Option A, advancing to clear liquids, is not the priority upon admission as the focus should be on urinary function first. Option C involves administering an antibiotic, which is important but not the immediate priority. Option D, obtaining a CBC, can be done later and is not as crucial as ensuring proper urinary function postoperatively.

5. A client morning assessment includes bounding peripheral pulses, weight gain of 2 pounds, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Restrict daily fluid intake to 1500 ml
• B. Weight the client every morning
• C. Maintain accurate intake and output
• D. Administer prescribed diuretic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a prescribed diuretic is the most important intervention in this scenario as the client is presenting signs of fluid overload and heart failure. Diuretics help reduce fluid retention in the body, alleviating symptoms like edema and crackles. Restricting fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but in this acute situation, addressing the immediate fluid overload with a diuretic takes precedence. Weighing the client daily and maintaining accurate intake and output are important aspects of monitoring, but they do not directly address the urgent need to manage fluid overload.

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