HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client’s plan of care?
- A. High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter
- B. High risk of injury related to ambulation
- C. Knowledge deficit related to a high-protein diet
- D. Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Uremic frost is a condition in which urea and other waste products are excreted through the skin, leaving a powdery residue. This indicates poor hygiene and self-care, common issues in patients with CKD and renal osteodystrophy. Proper hygiene measures are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be included in the plan of care for a CKD patient with renal osteodystrophy. Choice A is more related to a vascular access issue, choice B is more related to mobility concerns, and choice C is more related to dietary education.
2. The nurse is calculating the one-minute Apgar score for a newborn male infant and determines that his heart rate is 150 beats/minute, he has a vigorous cry, his muscle tone is good with total flexion, he has quick reflex irritability, and his color is dusky and cyanotic. What Apgar score should the nurse assign to the infant?
- A. 8
- B. 9
- C. 6
- D. 7
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8. The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a good heart rate, vigorous cry, good muscle tone, and quick reflex irritability, which would total to 8. The only factor affecting the score is the cyanotic color, which could indicate potential respiratory or circulatory issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the overall assessment provided in the scenario.
3. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?
- A. Observe the PICC line site for inflammation.
- B. Encourage increasing fluid intake.
- C. Monitor blood pressure regularly.
- D. Assess skin turgor for dehydration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the PICC line site for inflammation. When a client with a PICC line develops a fever, it could indicate an infection related to the catheter. Assessing the PICC line site for signs of inflammation, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage, is crucial in identifying a potential infection early. Choice B is incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not directly related to assessing a PICC line for infection. Choice C is not the most appropriate assessment in this situation as monitoring blood pressure may not directly help in identifying the cause of the fever. Choice D is unrelated to the assessment of a fever in a client with a PICC line.
4. Following morning care, a client with C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Check for any kinks or obstructions in the client’s Foley tubing
- B. Assess the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes
- C. Administer a prescribed PRN dose of hydralazine (Apresoline)
- D. Educate the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury experiencing flushing and a headache, the priority intervention is to assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. These symptoms could indicate autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to identify and address this emergency situation promptly. Checking for kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Administering hydralazine (Choice C) without knowing the blood pressure could be harmful as it may lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Educating the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia (Choice D) is important for long-term management but is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.
5. The nurse is assessing a first-day postpartum client. Which finding is most indicative of a postpartum infection?
- A. Oral temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
- B. Blood pressure of 122/74 mmHg
- C. Moderate amount of foul-smelling lochia
- D. White blood count of 19,000/mm³ (19x10^9/L SI units)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A foul-smelling lochia is indicative of a postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Foul-smelling lochia suggests the presence of infection due to the breakdown of tissue by bacteria, leading to the malodor. An oral temperature elevation and an elevated white blood cell count are nonspecific and can be present in various conditions other than postpartum infections, making them less indicative. A blood pressure within normal limits is not typically associated with postpartum infections.
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