HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test
1. A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client’s plan of care?
- A. High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter
- B. High risk of injury related to ambulation
- C. Knowledge deficit related to a high-protein diet
- D. Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Uremic frost is a condition in which urea and other waste products are excreted through the skin, leaving a powdery residue. This indicates poor hygiene and self-care, common issues in patients with CKD and renal osteodystrophy. Proper hygiene measures are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be included in the plan of care for a CKD patient with renal osteodystrophy. Choice A is more related to a vascular access issue, choice B is more related to mobility concerns, and choice C is more related to dietary education.
2. While a patient is receiving beta-1b interferon every other day for multiple sclerosis, which serum laboratory test findings should the nurse monitor to assess for possible bone marrow suppression caused by the medication? (Select all that apply)
- A. Platelet count
- B. White blood cell count (WBC)
- C. Sodium and potassium
- D. Red blood cell count (RBC)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Beta-1b interferon can lead to bone marrow suppression, impacting blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count, white blood cell count (WBC), and red blood cell count (RBC) is essential. Platelet count is a direct indicator of bone marrow function and can show early signs of bone marrow suppression. While sodium, potassium, and albumin/protein levels are important for overall health assessment, they are not directly associated with bone marrow suppression caused by the medication.
3. An elderly client with Alzheimer's disease is being admitted to a long-term care facility. The client’s spouse expresses concern about the level of care the client will receive. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. Reassure the spouse that the client will be well cared for and provide information about the facility’s care practices.
- B. Inform the spouse that care will be adjusted based on the client’s condition and needs.
- C. Advise the spouse to visit frequently to monitor the quality of care the client receives.
- D. Suggest that the spouse speak with other family members for reassurance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse in this situation is to reassure the spouse that the client will be well cared for and provide information about the facility’s care practices. This response not only addresses the spouse's concerns directly but also helps in building trust and confidence in the care provided. Choice B is not ideal as it may cause unnecessary worry about the fluctuating care levels. Choice C puts the responsibility on the spouse to monitor care, which may not always be feasible or appropriate. Choice D deflects the concern to other family members instead of addressing the spouse's worries directly.
4. In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, if a child has a Gower sign, what behavior should the nurse expect the child to exhibit?
- A. Stands from sitting on the floor by using hands to walk up legs
- B. Exhibits muscular atrophy of upper and lower extremities
- C. Is unable to stand because of contractures of both hips
- D. Walks with an unsteady gait and slaps feet on the floor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Gower sign is a characteristic finding in Duchenne muscular dystrophy where a child uses hands to walk up the legs when standing from a sitting position due to proximal muscle weakness. This behavior is indicative of the child trying to compensate for weak hip and thigh muscles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the specific behavior associated with the Gower sign. Muscular atrophy, contractures of both hips, and an unsteady gait with foot slapping are not directly related to the Gower sign.
5. The nurse assesses a 5-year-old child who has been experiencing frequent headaches and vomiting. The nurse notices that the child is lethargic and has a positive Brudzinski sign. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Perform a complete neurological examination
- B. Measure the child’s head circumference
- C. Check the child’s blood glucose level
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The presence of lethargy and a positive Brudzinski sign in a child experiencing frequent headaches and vomiting may indicate a serious condition like meningitis. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and initiation of appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because while a neurological examination may be necessary, it is not the priority when a potentially serious condition like meningitis is suspected. Choice B is incorrect as measuring the child's head circumference is not the most immediate action to take in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as checking the child's blood glucose level, although important in some cases, is not the priority when a child presents with symptoms suggestive of meningitis.
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