HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. Which task could the PN safely delegate to the UAP?
- A. Oral feeding of a two-year-old child after application of a hip spica cast
- B. Assessment of the placement and patency of a NG tube
- C. Participation in staff rounds to record notes regarding client goals
- D. Evaluation of a client's incisional pain following narcotic administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a child is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). This task involves providing basic care and does not require specialized nursing skills. Choices B, C, and D involve assessments, recording client goals, and evaluating pain, respectively, which all require specialized nursing knowledge, judgment, and skills. These tasks are not within the scope of practice for a UAP.
2. The nurse observes a UAP performing oral hygiene on an unconscious client who is lying in a flat side-lying position with an emesis basin on a towel under the chin. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Stop the procedure and tell the UAP to place the client in a Fowler's position
- B. Praise the UAP for doing the oral hygiene but encourage family participation
- C. Tell the UAP to continue because the unconscious client is positioned safely
- D. Enroll the UAP in a hospital education class on conducting safe client care
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the UAP to continue because the unconscious client is positioned safely for oral care. Placing an unconscious client in a side-lying position helps prevent aspiration, and having an emesis basin under the chin is appropriate to catch any fluids. Therefore, the nurse should acknowledge that the UAP is performing the procedure correctly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Placing the client in a Fowler's position is not necessary for this procedure as the client is already positioned safely. Praise and encouragement for family participation are important aspects but not the immediate action needed in this scenario. Enrolling the UAP in a hospital education class is not warranted as the current procedure is being performed correctly.
3. When administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF), what is the nurse's primary concern?
- A. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload.
- B. Ensuring the client receives enough fluids to prevent dehydration.
- C. Preventing electrolyte imbalances.
- D. Maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary concern when administering IV fluids to a client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is monitoring for signs of fluid overload. Clients with CHF are particularly vulnerable to fluid overload, which can exacerbate their condition. Signs of fluid overload include edema and difficulty breathing. Therefore, the nurse must closely monitor these signs to prevent worsening of the client's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while ensuring hydration, preventing electrolyte imbalances, and maintaining the prescribed rate of fluid administration are important, they are secondary concerns compared to the critical task of monitoring for fluid overload in a client with CHF.
4. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to increase the risk of a medication error?
- A. Not using abbreviations for medications
- B. Errors in the calculation of medication dosages
- C. Barcoding medication orders
- D. Utilizing unit dose dispensers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Errors in the calculation of medication dosages are a significant risk factor for medication errors. When dosage calculations are incorrect, it can lead to administering the wrong amount of medication, posing serious harm to the patient. Avoiding abbreviations for medications, barcoding medication orders, and utilizing unit dose dispensers are all strategies aimed at reducing medication errors by enhancing accuracy and safety. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are practices that help decrease, rather than increase, the risk of medication errors.
5. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of calcium and phosphate in the blood?
- A. Parathyroid hormone
- B. Insulin
- C. Cortisol
- D. Thyroxine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Parathyroid hormone is the correct answer. It regulates calcium and phosphate levels in the blood by increasing calcium reabsorption in the kidneys and releasing calcium from bones. Insulin is involved in glucose metabolism, not calcium and phosphate regulation. Cortisol is a stress hormone and is not primarily responsible for regulating calcium and phosphate levels. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone that primarily regulates metabolism, not calcium and phosphate in the blood.
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